Selasa, 15 Desember 2009

CCNA 3.1 Semester 1 Final Exam Result #1-5

1 Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)
transceiver
* router
* switch
hub
media

This item references content from the following areas:
CCNA 1 Networking Basics
• 8.2.3 Segmentation

2.
Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
3
5
6
* 7
8
9

This item references content from the following areas:
CCNA 1 Networking Basics
• 8.2.2 Collision domains

3.
Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?

Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
* Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.

This item references content from the following areas:
CCNA 1 Networking Basics
• 10.2.2 Routing versus switching

4.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?

* The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.

This item references content from the following areas:
CCNA 1 Networking Basics
• 6.2.10 Link establishment and full and half duplex

5.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?

session
transport
network
data link
* physical

This item references content from the following areas:
CCNA 1 Networking Basics
• 2.3.4 OSI layers

Rabu, 25 November 2009

CCNA3 - Final Exam Answers (v.2)

Version 2

1
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port
GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
**802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address
and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address
and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
**All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4
Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
**SSID
OFDM
WEP
DSSS
5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
**SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN on switch Y?
QoS
routing
**trunking
VPN
7
Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
**S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
**S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
**This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the VTP domain.
**This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same
VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot
ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
**S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default
VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
**Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the
same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
**Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the
transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
**The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13
Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
**forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
forward the frame out Interface3
discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces
forward the frame out Interface2
14
Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
**It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
**It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
**192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
**SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17
Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe
the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
**A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
**An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and
Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and
Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and
Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and
Switch4.
18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
**computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet
connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The SSH version number is wrong.
SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
**The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
**Cat-C
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned
from switch SW3?
**VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22
Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
**Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination
port.
23
Which three statements are true regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
**requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
**more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
**can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple
physical interfaces
24
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination
address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3
**The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the
25
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely
removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
**S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
**S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?
**The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration
should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN
information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
**Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28
What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
**reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
**increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
**simplification of management and troubleshooting
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this
output?(Choose three.)
**Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
**A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
**The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network
without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
**VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain
31
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical
network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
**Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32
Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.
Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
**All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
**The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
**All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
**After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
**If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the idle before transmitting.
34
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator
enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
**The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic
trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
**Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address
**Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from the traffic originated.
36
What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain?
(Choose three.)
**Select the correct VTP mode and version.
**Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain
**Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
**only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E
38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports
**The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the
running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service
password-encryption command.
39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4?
(Choose two.)
**This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch
**Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001
spanning-tree domain.
40
Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate?
(Choose three.)
**The switch ports are on different VLANs.
The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
**The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
**A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the
spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
**switch F
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting
stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
hub HB1
**switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing
the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
**BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and farthest connected switch.
44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured
Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only
access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem
**Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
**force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
**Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs.
47
Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
**BSSID
ESSID
48
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface
fa0/24?
A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
**The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements
client
root
server
**transparent
50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software
**From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access
in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
**Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
**The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes
after the last activity on a switch port.
52
What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
**provides improved range
**permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

Jumat, 02 Oktober 2009

CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4 #26-30

26. Which command should a network administrator issue to disable default summarization in an EIGRP network?
• Router(config-router)# null 0 route
• Router(config-if)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-router)# no ip summary-address
• Router(config-if)# no auto-summary
• Router(config-router)# no auto-summary

27.
3
Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)
• There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.
• There is a network statement missing.
• Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

• The OSPF Area configuration is incorrect.
• /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

28.
11
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme would be correct for the network?
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.18.0.12/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.10/16
H3-172.18.0.11/16

• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.18.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16
• H1-172.18.0.10/16
H2-172.19.0.11/16
H3-172.19.0.11/16

29.
14
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new router to the network. The IP address 192.168.13.6/30 has been assigned to the connecting serial interface on R2. What IP address must the administrator assign to the serial interface of the new router?
• 192.168.13.4/30
• 192.168.13.5/30
• 192.168.13.7/30
• 192.168.13.58/30
• 192.168.13.61/27
• 192.168.13.63/27

30. After comparing a previous baseline to current network statistics, the network engineer has discovered a significant increase in unwarranted traffic to the extranet. Which two steps simplify administration and control the unwanted traffic? (Choose two.)
• define an ACL at the distribution layer to isolate packets
• add an ACL at the router in the enterprise edge to block the traffic

• deploy a Layer 3 switch to contain broadcasts
• connect remote locations directly to the intranet
• configure all hosts with the same default gateway to eliminate unnecessary broadcasts
• deploy one core ISP router to reduce the delay in path determination

Minggu, 06 September 2009

CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4 #21-25

21.
10
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is connected to the Internet through its serial 0/0/0 interface. Hosts on the 192.168.100.0/24 LAN on R1 cannot communicate with hosts on the Internet. What two NAT configuration issues might explain this failure? (Choose two.)
• The ip nat pool command has not been applied correctly.
• The inside interface has not been defined on R1.
• The access list does not include the group of IP addresses that are supported by the inside network.
• The ip address that is assigned to the serial 0/0/0 interface is incorrect
• The outside interface has not been defined on R1.

22.
5
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity between them. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the cause of this connectivity problem?
• no set loopback
• incorrect subnet mask on R2
• incompatible bandwidth
• incorrect IP address on R1
• incompatible encapsulation

23. Which two statements describe how the information contained in a BPDU is used by a switch? (Choose two.)
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to activate looped paths throughout the network
• to determine the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing routing tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports are placed in forwarding mode

24. When MD5 authentication is used for OSPF routing protocol authentication, what two facts are known about the key? (Choose two.)
• The key passes between routers in plain text.
• The key is used to help generate an encrypted number for authentication.
• The key passes between routers in encrypted form.
• The key is never transmitted.
• The key can be captured by using a packet sniffer.

25.
9
Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, which statement is true?
• Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
• No host can reach any other host.
• Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.
• All hosts can reach each other.

Sabtu, 01 Agustus 2009

Routing Components

Routing involves two basic activities: determining optimal routing paths and transporting information groups (typically called packets) through an internetwork. In the context of the routing process, the latter of these is referred to as packet switching. Although packet switching is relatively straightforward, path determination can be very complex.

Jumat, 31 Juli 2009

Point-to-Point Protocol - Introduction

The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic over point-to-point links. PPP also established a standard for the assignment and management of IP addresses, asynchronous (start/stop) and bit-oriented synchronous encapsulation, network protocol multiplexing, link configuration, link quality testing, error detection, and option negotiation for such capabilities as network layer address negotiation and data-compression negotiation. PPP supports these functions by providing an extensible Link Control Protocol (LCP) and a family of Network Control Protocols (NCPs) to negotiate optional configuration parameters and facilities. In addition to IP, PPP supports other protocols, including Novell's Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) and DECnet.

What Is Routing?

Routing is the act of moving information across an internetwork from a source to a destination. Along the way, at least one intermediate node typically is encountered. Routing is often contrasted with bridging, which might seem to accomplish precisely the same thing to the casual observer. The primary difference between the two is that bridging occurs at Layer 2 (the link layer) of the OSI reference model, whereas routing occurs at Layer 3 (the network layer). This distinction provides routing and bridging with different information to use in the process of moving information from source to destination, so the two functions accomplish their tasks in different ways.
The topic of routing has been covered in computer science literature for more than two decades, but routing achieved commercial popularity as late as the mid-1980s. The primary reason for this time lag is that networks in the 1970s were simple, homogeneous environments. Only relatively recently has large-scale internetworking become popular.

Rabu, 22 Juli 2009

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Answers V.4 #6-10

6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4 #16-20

16. What two statements are true regarding EIGRP tables? (Choose two.)
• A feasible successor route can be found in the topology table.
• A successor route can only be found in the routing table.
• The topology table shows whether a route is in the passive or active state.
• The routing table shows the amount of time elapsed since a router adjacency was formed.
• The neighbor table shows all adjacent Cisco devices.
• Administrative distance is shown as a column in the neighbor table.

17.
10
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all three routers are configured with the EIGRP routing protocol and sharing information, what information can be gathered from the show command output?
• Router B has EIGRP adjacencies with both router A and C.
• Router B has a fully converged topology table.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router A.
• Router B has not formed an adjacency with router C.

18. Which three statements are true about RSTP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP can fall back to STP to provide support for legacy equipment.
• RSTP and STP have the same number of port states.
• Like PortFast and UplinkFast, RSTP is a proprietary protocol.
• RSTP takes up to 50 seconds to converge.
• RSTP requires a point-to-point, full-duplex connection.
• RSTP views all ports that are not discarding as part of an active topology.

19.
15
Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a new router. What is causing the interface to reject the address?
• The IP address is already in use.
• The technician is using a network address.
• The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26
• The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

20.
8
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the command ip route 10.10.4.16 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1 into the router. What will be the result of this configuration?
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table.
• A static route to 10.10.4.16/29 is placed into the routing table if interface FastEthernet0/1 goes down.
• A static route pointing to 10.10.4.16/29 is only placed into the routing table if the route to 10.10.4.0 is removed.
• A static route is not placed into the routing table because a RIP route that includes the destination network already exists.

Rabu, 15 Juli 2009

CCNA EXAM

The Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA®) Certification is a sought after qualification for many people working in the Networking arena. It is a certification that validates you to do a number of things. Namely, you will be able to install and configure a medium sized network. You will also be able to operate as well as troubleshoot the network.

These networks are usually routed and switch type network infrastructures. As part of your CCNA skills you will be able to implement and verify network connections to remote sites in a Wide Area Network (WAN). The curriculum of the CCNA will have you studying the possible threats to security and how to prevent such attacks.

Further to your studies touch on the concepts and terminology of wireless networking. You will get a grounding in popular protocols in use today such as Internet Protocol (IP), Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), Serial Line Interface Protocol Frame Relay, Routing Information Protocol Version 2
(RIPv2),VLANs, Ethernet, access control lists (ACLs).


The CCNA Associate paths including CCNA, CCENT, CCNA Security, CCNA Voice and CCNA Wireless.

The CCNA 640-802 in particular has a number of specific exam topics which are:

Describe how a network works so you can for example Interpret network diagrams and differentiate between LAN/WAN operation and features. Be able to use the OSI and TCP/IP
models and their associated protocols to explain how data flows in a network among other
things.

In your training you will come across how to configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with


VLANs and interswitch communications which will involve verifying network status and switch
operation using basic utilities (including: ping, traceroute, telnet, SSH, arp, ipconfig),
SHOW & DEBUG commands.

As you progress through your training in the 640-802 CCNA material you will experience how to implement an IP addressing scheme and IP Services to meet network requirements in a medium-size Enterprise branch office network. This will certainly help you to become much more proficient at describing IPv6 addresses and be able to undertake the Calculation and application of an addressing scheme including VLSM IP addressing design to a network.

Hands-on activity will have you configuring, verifying, and troubleshooting basic router operation and routing on Cisco devices such as OSPF and EIGRP. Not forgetting RIPv2 protocol as well as introduction to the SDM workings.

Explanation and selecting the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN is an important activity for the budding CCNA Associate. You will learn about wireless technology such as SSID, BSS and ESS as well as standards such as IEEE WI-FI Alliance, ITU/FCC.

Jumat, 03 Juli 2009

Linux home networking - syslog Configuration and Cisco Devices

Cisco Routers

By default Cisco routers send syslog messages to their logging server with a default facility of local7. Don't set the facility in this case, but do tell the router to timestamp the messages and make the messages have the source IP address of the loopback interface.

service timestamps log datetime localtime
no logging console
no logging monitor
logging 192.168.1.100

Catalyst CAT Switches running CATOS

By default Cisco switches also send syslog messages to their logging server with a default facility of local7. Don't change this facility either, therefore making routers and switches log to the same file.

set logging server enable
set logging server 192.168.1.100
set logging level all 5
set logging server severity 6

Cisco Local Director

Local Directors use the syslog output command to set their logging facility and severity. The value provided must be in the format FF.SS (facility.severity) using the numbering scheme in Table IV-1:

Table IV-1 Syslog Facility and Severity Numbering Scheme for Local Directors

Facility

FF Value

Severity

SS Value

local 0

16

System unusable

0

local 1

17

Immediate action required

1

local 2

18

Critical condition

2

local 3

19

Error conditions

3

local 4

20

Warning conditions

4

local 5

21

Normal but significant conditions

5

local 6

22

Informational messages

6

local 7

23

Debugging messages

7

This example uses facility local4 and the logging debugging messages from Table IV-1.

syslog output 20.7
no syslog console
syslog host 192.168.1.100

Cisco PIX Filewalls

PIX firewalls use the numbering scheme in Table IV.2 to determine their logging facilities.

Table IV-2 Syslog Facility and Severity Numbering Scheme for PIX Firewalls

Facility

Logging Facility

Command Value

local 0

16

local 1

17

local 2

18

local 3

19

local 4

20

local 5

21

local 6

22

local 7

23

This configuration example assumes that the logging server is connected on the side of the "inside" protected interface. It sends log messages to facility local3 with a severity level of 5 (Notification) set by the logging trap command.


logging on
logging standby
logging timestamp
logging trap notifications
logging facility 19
logging host inside 192.168.1.100

Cisco CSS11000 (Arrowpoints)

The configuration for the Cisco CSS11000 load balancer series is more straightforward. You specify the facility with an intuitive number using the logging host command and set the severity with the logging subsystem command. This example shows the CSS11000 logging facility local6 and severity level 6 (Informational):

logging host 192.168.1.100 facility 6
set logging subsystem all info-6
logging commands enable

The Sample Cisco syslog.conf File

#
# All LOCAL3 messages (debug and above) go to the firewall file ciscofw
#
local3.debug /var/log/cisco/ciscofw

#
# All LOCAL4 messages (debug and above) go to the Local Director file ciscold
#
local4.debug /var/log/cisco/ciscold

#
# All LOCAL6 messages (debug and above) go to the CSS file ciscocss
#
local6.debug /var/log/cisco/ciscocss

#
# All LOCAL7 messages (debug and above) go to the ciscoacl
# This includes ACL logs which are logged at severity debug
#
local7.debug /var/log/cisco/ciscoacl

#
# LOCAL7 messages (notice and above) go to the ciscoinfo
# This excludes ACL logs which are logged at severity debug
#
local7.notice /var/log/cisco/ciscoinfo

Rabu, 01 Juli 2009

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Answers V.4 #1-5

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Answers V.4 #1-5

1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.

4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES
• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

Senin, 29 Juni 2009

CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4 #11-15

11.
4
What is the term for the value 2172416 that is highlighted in the output of the show ip eigrp topology command?
• feasible distance of the successor
• reported distance of the successor
• feasible distance of the feasible successor
• reported distance of the feasible successor

12.
16
Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 is configured in the network shown. Hosts in the network have access to all internal networks but do not have Internet access. On which router should the commands, shown in the exhibit, be added to provide Internet access for all hosts in the network?
• R1
• R2
• R3
• ISP

13. What do companies gain from the services performed at the enterprise edge?
• faster communication with server farms
• stronger security against malicious attacks
• faster communication with Internet destinations
• enhanced performance and reliability through VLANs and redundant trunk links

14.
11
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wishes to deny Internet access to all R2 LAN hosts, while allowing these hosts to reach all other devices on the company networks. Where the ACL shown in the exhibit should be placed to meet these requirements?
• R2: Fa0/0 inbound
• R1: S0/1/0 outbound
• R1: S0/0/1 inbound
• R2: S0/0/1 outbound
• R2: Fa0/0 outbound

15.
6
Refer to the exhibit. In what sequence (from first to last) does an OSPF router check the parameters listed when selecting the DR?
• C, B, A, D
• D, C, B, A
• A, B, C, D
• A, C, B, D
• B, C, A, D

Jumat, 26 Juni 2009

Frame Relay - Introduction

Introduction

Frame Relay is a high-performance WAN protocol that operates at the physical and data link layers of the OSI reference model. Frame Relay originally was designed for use across Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interfaces. Today, it is used over a variety of other network interfaces as well. This chapter focuses on Frame Relay's specifications and applications in the context of WAN services.

Frame Relay is an example of a packet-switched technology. Packet-switched networks enable end stations to dynamically share the network medium and the available bandwidth. The following two techniques are used in packet-switching technology:

Variable-length packets

Statistical multiplexing

Variable-length packets are used for more efficient and flexible data transfers. These packets are switched between the various segments in the network until the destination is reached.

Statistical multiplexing techniques control network access in a packet-switched network. The advantage of this technique is that it accommodates more flexibility and more efficient use of bandwidth. Most of today's popular LANs, such as Ethernet and Token Ring, are packet-switched networks.

Frame Relay often is described as a streamlined version of X.25, offering fewer of the robust capabilities, such as windowing and retransmission of last data that are offered in X.25. This is because Frame Relay typically operates over WAN facilities that offer more reliable connection services and a higher degree of reliability than the facilities available during the late 1970s and early 1980s that served as the common platforms for X.25 WANs. As mentioned earlier, Frame Relay is strictly a Layer 2 protocol suite, whereas X.25 provides services at Layer 3 (the network layer) as well. This enables Frame Relay to offer higher performance and greater transmission efficiency than X.25, and makes Frame Relay suitable for current WAN applications, such as LAN interconnection.

Minggu, 21 Juni 2009

FINAL Exam Answers V.4- CCNA Discovery 3 - #6-10

6. A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the Internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
• VPN
• Frame Relay
• PPP with CHAP authentication
• PPP with PAP authentication

7.
1
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator noticed that the VLAN configuration changes at SW2 did not propagate to SW3. On the basis of the partial output of the show vtp status command, what is the possible cause of the problem?
• VTP V2 mode is disabled.
• SW3 is configured as transparent mode.
• The number of existing VLANs does not match.
• The configuration revision number does not match.

8.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Because of continuing instability of one of the serial links in the OSPF network, a network administrator configures router ASBR as shown. Which two statements will be a result of this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Traffic intended for destinations across unstable serial links will be forwarded by ASBR even when the links are down
• A summary route of 192.168.0.0/22 will be advertised to the ISP router.
• Serial links in range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 will be forced into a passive state.
• Networks connected to the unstable serial links will be placed in an unreachable state.
• Negative effects of route flapping will be reduced.

9. Which two criteria are used by STP to select a root bridge? (Choose two.)
• memory size
• bridge priority
• number of ports
• switch location
• switching speed
• base MAC address

10. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 150 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

Kamis, 18 Juni 2009

CCNA Discovery 3 - FINAL Exam Answers V.4 #1-5

1. In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domain members?
• client
• server
• pruning
• transparent

2. What are two characteristics of an extended ACL? (Choose two.)
• IP is used to specify TCP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify TCP and UDP traffic only.
• IP is used to specify all TCP/IP protocols including TCP, UDP, ICMP and routing protocols.
• Traffic can be filtered on source address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address only.
• Traffic can be filtered on source and destination address, protocol, and specific port number.

3. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
• LCP tests the quality of the link.
• LCP manages compression on the link

• Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
• NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
• With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

4. Assuming VLSM is not being used, what impact will adding the command ip route 172.16.64.0 255.255.240.0 serial0/0 have on a router that is already operational in a network?
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.80.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.255.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.64.1 and 172.16.79.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.
• All packets with a destination address between 172.16.0.1 and 172.16.64.254 will be forwarded out serial0/0.

5.
8
Refer to the exhibit. The network is using OSPF as the routing protocol. A network administrator issues the show ip ospf neighbor command to check the status of operation. Which statement is true?
• RB has the lowest priority value.
• RC and RD have the lowest router IDs on the network.
• RA has established adjacencies with all neighbor routers.
• RA and RB cannot form an adjacency because they are stuck in the 2-way state.

Kamis, 11 Juni 2009

CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 2- CCNA Exploration: Accessing the WAN (Version 4.0)



1. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

PDU #1 is a frame.

PDU #2 is an application layer PDU

PDU #3 is a segment.

PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.

The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.

The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3.

2. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

SMTP

FTP

SNMP

HTTP

TFTP

DHCP

3. Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)

Telnet

SNMP

SMTP

SQL

TFTP

4. What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

establishment of logical connections between source and destination hosts

end-to-end flow control

determination of best paths through the network

definition of the procedures used to interface with the network hardware

packet switching

Layer 5 and Layer 6 OSI model functions

5. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.)

3 collision domains

3 broadcast domains

5 broadcast domains

9 collision domains

10 collision domains

13 collision domains

6. A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)

Switch(config-if)# vlan all

Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30

Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all

Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl

7. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this command:
Sw1# telnet 192.168.1.10

All packets will be dropped.

The Telnet session will succeed.

An error message that says “Session terminated” will appear.

An error message that says “Password required, but none set” will appear.

8. Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration appropriate?
RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.18.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.44.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.22.1 255.255.255.0





9. Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.
Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?

The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.

The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.

The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.

The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.

The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.

10. A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands and error message appear as follows:
Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode.
What is the problem?

The switch port is configured as an access mode port.

The switch port does not support trunking on this port.

The encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be placed in trunk mode.

The no switchport trunk encapsulation auto command needs to be applied to the switch port before trunking can be enabled.

11. Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate?

802.1Q

CDP

RIP

RSTP

12. Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would correct the problem?

RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1
RT_1(config-if)# no shutdown

SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24
SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode client

RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1
RT_1(config-if)# encapsulation trunk dot1q 24

SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24
SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24
SW_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.)

SW_1(config)# username david password class

SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15
SW_1(config-line)# login
SW_1(config-line)# password cisco

SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15
SW_1(config-line)# login local
SW_1(config-line)# transport input ssh

SW_1(config)# login ssh
SW_1(config)# password class

SW_1(config)# login key rsa
SW_1(config)# password cisco

SW_1(config)# password encrypted cisco

14. What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

improper placement of enterprise level servers

addition of hosts to a physical segment

replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts

migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

15. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Spanning Tree

RIP v2

IEEE 802.1Q

ARP

Rapid Spanning Tree

16. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)

listening

learning

blocking

disabled

forwarding

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

designated switch

edge switch

root bridge

enabled bridge

local bridge

18. Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?

1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward

1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward

1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward

1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free

19. What eliminates switching loops?

hold-down timers

poison reverse

spanning tree protocol

time to live

VTP

20.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?

192.168.16.63/27

192.168.16.158/27

192.168.16.192/27

192.168.16.113/30

192.168.16.145/30

192.168.16.193/30

22. Consider this router output:
Router# confug
Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)
Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)
(255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address
What command could help with this situation?

ip dhcp server

no ip domain-lookup

no logging synchronous

no show ip nat translations

23. Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses that are required on router B?

/26

/27

/28

/29

/30

24. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8

64.100.0.0/14

127.16.0.0/12

172.16.0.0/12

192.31.7.0/24

192.168.0.0/16

25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

The default gateway configured on the network administrator's workstation is not a valid host address.

The default gateway configured on the TFTP server in incorrect.

The IP address of the TFTP server is a subnetwork address.

The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of the Heliopolis router is a broadcast address.

The IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet.

26. The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year. Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses?

dual stack

6to4 tunnel

manual tunneling

NAT-PT

27. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?

172.16.0.0

172.16.134.0

172.16.134.32

172.16.134.48

172.16.134.47

172.16.134.63

28. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

low processor overhead

poison reverse

routing loops

split horizon

shortest-path first calculations

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252

router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0

30. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

to activate the OSPF neighboring process

to influence the DR/BDR election process

to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

to streamline and speed up the convergence process

31. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

The clock rate is not set on the DTE.

An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.

A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.

The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.

Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.

32. Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a destination network?

Router# show ip interfaces brief

Router# show ip route

Router# show cdp neighbors

Router# show running-config

Router# show protocols

33. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.

The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.

The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.

The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.

The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.

The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

34. Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet 192.168.1.10 is typed. The response that is given is this:
Trying 192.168.1.10….Open
Password required, but none set
What is the most likely problem?

The router has been configured as a firewall.

The Telnet server process must be activated on the router.

The switch has not been configured to pass Telnet traffic.

The enable secret command has not been entered on RtrA.

The password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA.

The password and login commands need to be configured on the console port of RtrA.

35. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 as 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 as 100
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 as 100

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 as 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 as 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 as 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 as 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63 as 100

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 area 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 100
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63 area 100

36. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

flash

ROM

NVRAM

RAM

the configuration register

a TFTP server

37. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?

EIGRP does not support VLSM.

The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.

The default bandwidth was used on the routers.

An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.

38. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)

ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192

ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224

summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31

ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63

serial interface on router A

serial interface on router B

40. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0

O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0

R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0

S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

41. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1

Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255

42.

43. Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment?

ACDP, which has more bits that are used for encryption than CDP has

WPA2, which can use the more advanced AES for encryption

VTP, which is compatible with all 802.11-type wireless networks

RSA, which has a different algorithm than any of the older standards

802.1X EAP, which is the most powerful type of encryption used for both wired and wireless networks

44.

45.

46. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

show ip route

show processes

show running-config

show cdp neighbor

show access-lists

47. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

most

host

all

any

some

gt

48. Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses 209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?

Because the ISP has knowledge of the directly connected 200.0.0.1 network, no route is needed.

A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 172.16.0.0 and the mask 255.255.0.0.

A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/0 or the 200.0.0.1 IP address.

A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/1 or the 200.0.0.2 IP address.

A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask 255.255.255.252.

49. What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

50. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask

source address and wildcard mask

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

51. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

52. Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.

The LMI type must always be manually configured.

The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP.

The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.

The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.

The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE.

53. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

establishes identities with a two-way handshake

uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities

control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

transmits login information in encrypted format

uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks

makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

54. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.

PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.

PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.