Planning for Security

Probably the most difficult task when dealing with security is the planning stage, in which you need to develop a solution to meet your company's business and security needs. When examining your network and identifying critical and insecure areas and components, you need to approach a security plan from various perspectives:

• Business goals and user needs
• People and politics
• Technical issues

First, you have to remember that your company has business goals outlined in a business plan. These are used as a roadmap to increase your company's success. A good security solution should help, not hinder, a company in reaching its business goals. The company's users have needs that are related to the company's business plan. Whereas the business plan is a general guideline, users have specific needs to reach the company's business goals.

You must deal with all kinds of users from different departments and divisions when determining what assets and resources your company is using to reach its business goals. This means that you need to be intimate with the corporate organization ladder and have political savvy when dealing with various users and departments, as well as their diverse needs.

When you understand what resources either are being used by or are required by users to reach the company's business goals, you need to determine what kind of security solution should be implemented that will protect your company yet allow it to achieve its goals. A solution that is completely secure yet prevents a company from reaching its goals is counterproductive and useless.

Security Threats

With the increase of hacking attacks, worms, viruses, and other networking threats, security is a major problem in today's networks. 10 to 15 years ago, security was a simple problem requiring simple solutions; in those days, the Internet was small and had only a small number of universities and government agencies connected to it. Aging passwords were used to protect accounts, and simple packet-filtering firewalls were used to restrict traffic flows. However, today is a different world from more than a decade ago. With the explosion of the Internet, the proliferation of software applications, and the ingenuity of hackers, security has become a complex problem that requires a well-thought-out security solution to deal with it. The security solution must be capable of dealing with the security threats that your network will face, but it also must allow your company to reach its business goals and must be flexible enough to adapt to network topology and technology changes.

This chapter contains a brief overview of the kinds of threats that you will face in securing your network, as well as some generic solutions that you can use to deal with these threats. Understanding these topics will greatly help you choose and implement the correct Cisco security feature on your router. The main purpose of this book is to explain how to use a Cisco perimeter router as a complete firewall solution or as a component of a firewall solution. The end of the chapter explains the Cisco Security Model, which is used to implement security solutions.

Most hackers are intimate with UNIX operating systems; thus, most hacking, as well as security tools, is done in UNIX. Many tools are available for Windows platforms, but most of these are expensive commercial products. Therefore, if you are interested in becoming a security specialist, I highly recommend that you become familiar with the UNIX operating system, network administration with UNIX, and how to use many of the different security tools in a UNIX environment. At a minimum, most security job positions require this level of expertise. One of my favorite UNIX system administration books is Unix Systems Administration Handbook (3rd Edition), by Evi Nemeth, Garth Snyder, Scott Seebass, and Trent T. Hein (Prentice Hall PTR, August 2000). I used the first edition of this book to help me with my UNIX skills more than a decade ago; it is simple to read and easy to understand.

Common Data Network Symbols

Networking is a very graphically oriented subject, and icons are commonly used to represent networking devices. On the left side of the diagram are shown some common devices which often originate messages that comprise our communication. These include various types of computers (a PC and laptop icon are shown), servers, and IP phones. On local area networks these devices are typically connected by LAN media (wired or wireless).

The right side of the figure shows some of the most common intermediate devices, used to direct and manage messages across the network, as well as other common networking symbols. Generic symbols are shown for:
Switch - the most common device for interconnecting local area networks
Firewall -provides security to networks
Router - helps direct messages as they travel across a network
Wireless Router - a specific type of router often found in home networks
Cloud - used to summarize a group of networking devices, the details of which may be unimportant to the discussion at hand
Serial Link - one form of WAN interconnection, represented by the lightning bolt-shaped line

The elements of networks

The diagram shows elements of a typical network, including devices, media, and services, tied together by rules, that work together to send messages. We use the word messages as a term that encompasses web pages, e-mail, instant messages, telephone calls, and other forms of communication enabled by the Internet. In this course, we will learn about a variety of messages, devices, media, and services that allow the communication of those messages. We will also learn about the rules, or protocols, that tie these network elements together.

CCNA Exploration 4.0

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• CCNA v4 E4 Module 6 (100%)
• CCNA v4 E4 Module 2 (100%) 2011 Answers
• CCNA 1 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers Updated 2011 100%

CCNA v4 E4 Module 6 (100%) Posted: 07 Jun 2011 02:54 AM PDT 1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.) channel widths modulation techniques 2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption? pre-shared key 3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.) allocate an additional channel subdivide the [...]

CCNA v4 E4 Module 2 (100%) 2011 Answers Posted: 06 Jun 2011 02:54 PM PDT 1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered? The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent. 2. Refer to the [...]

CCNA 1 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers Updated 2011 100% Posted: 06 Jun 2011 12:07 AM PDT CCNA 1 Chapter 1 V4.0 Answers Updated 2011 100% 1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.) They are non-network connections. They are used to connect the router to the rest of the production network. They are synchronous serial ports. They are used for initial [...]

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CCNA Exploration 4.0

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• CCNA v4 E4 Module 3 (100%)
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CCNA v4 E4 Module 3 (100%) Posted: 06 Jun 2011 02:54 AM PDT 1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service? Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider. 2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct? Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues. 3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)? locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit 4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network? virtual circuit 5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) Inverse ARP LMI status messages 6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output? The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface. 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.) The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1. Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22. 8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router? It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops. 9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology? two point-to-point subinterfaces 10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output? The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration. 11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown? It is experiencing congestion. 12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.) The local DLCI number is 401. Inverse ARP is being used on this connection. 13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping? 110 14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1? R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing? The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs. 16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause? The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword. 17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch. The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI. 18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output? Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201. 19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks? To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword. 20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.) drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link 21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.) Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery. The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender. 22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully? R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

CCNA 1 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers 100% Updated 2011 Posted: 04 Jun 2011 10:13 PM PDT Updated 2011 100% www.ccnafinal.net 1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server? HTML HTTP FTP Telnet 2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.) applications dialogs requests services syntax 3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.) centralized administration does not require specialized software security is easier to enforce lower cost implementation provides a single point of failure 4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS? temporarily holds resolved entries used by the server to resolve names sent by the client to during a query passes authentication information between the server and client 5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address? HTTP SSH FQDN DNS Telnet SMTP 6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) ARP DNS PPP SMTP POP ICMP 7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.) acts as both a client and server within the same communication. requires centralized account administration. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files. can be used in client-server networks. requires a direct physical connection between devices. centralized authentication is required. 8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.) DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client POP delivers email from the client to the server email server SMTP supports file sharing Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.) MDA IMAP MTA POP SMTP MUA 10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet? not widely available does not support encryption consumes more network bandwidth does not support authentication 11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.) routes email to the MDA on other servers receives email from the client's MUA receives email via the POP3 protocol passes email to the MDA for final delivery uses SMTP to route email between servers delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol 12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.) ASP FTP HTML HTTP HTTPS IP 13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.) User accounts are centralized. Security is difficult to enforce. Specialized operating system software is required. File permissions are controlled by a single computer. A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network? physical session network presentation application transport 15. ccna 1 chapter 3 answers 100% Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5? 80 1261 15533 3912 65520 16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.) scalable one way data flow decentralized resources centralized user accounts resource sharing without a dedicated server 17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? DHCP DNS SMB SMTP Telnet 18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.) use daemons initiate data exchanges are repositories of data may upload data to servers listen for requests from servers 19. What is the role of the OSI application layer? provides segmentation of data provides encryption and conversion of data provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices 20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services? ceases all connections to the service denies multiple connections to a single daemon suspends the current connection to allow the new connection uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service Tags: Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two )

CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 100% updated 2011 Posted: 04 Jun 2011 10:07 PM PDT CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 100% updated 2011 1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.) determine pathways for data initiate data communications retime and retransmit data signals originate the flow of data manage data flows final termination point for data flow 2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.) define the structure of layer specific PDU's dictate how to accomplish layer functions outline the functions necessary for communications between layers limit the need for hardware compatibility require layer dependent encapsulations eliminate standardization among vendors 3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.) tracks delay between end devices enables consistent network paths for communication allows modification of the original data before transmission identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device 4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation? supports error detection ensures ordered arrival of data provides delivery to correct destination identifies the devices on the local network assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection 5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.) Network Transport Physical Data Link Session 6. What is a PDU? corruption of a frame during transmission data reassembled at the destination retransmitted packets due to lost communication a layer specific encapsulation 7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network? manage data flows originate data flow retime and retransmit data signals determine pathways for data 8.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?" the destination device an end device an intermediate device a media device 9.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.) Network A — WAN Network B — WAN Network C — LAN Network B — MAN Network C — WAN Network A – LAN 10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.) A LAN is usually in a single geographical area. The network is administered by a single organization. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization. Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP). 11.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic? piping PDU streaming multiplexing encapsulation 12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment? to identify devices on the local media to identify the hops between source and destination to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices 13. What device is considered an intermediary device? file server IP phone laptop printer switch 14. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B? source end transfer intermediary 15. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown? WAN MAN LAN WLAN 16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets? physical data link network transport 17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header? the destination device on the local media the destination host address the bits that will be transferred over the media the source application or process creating the data 18. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices? A, C, D B, E, G, H C, D, G, H, I, J D, E, F, H, I, J E, F, H, I, J 19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer? No address is added. The logical address is added. The physical address is added. The process port number is added. 20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer? path determination and packet switching data presentation reliability, flow control, and error detection network media control the division of segments into packets 21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer? physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application Tags: CCNA 2 all final answers v4 0 100%

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CCNA Exploration 4.0

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• CCNA v4 E1 Module 2 (above 90%)
• CCNA v4 E1 Module 3 (above 90%)
• CCNA 1 Final 2011

CCNA v4 E1 Module 2 (above 90%) Posted: 05 Jun 2011 02:54 AM PDT 1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.) Physical Data Link 2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation? supports error detection 3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer? The physical address is added. 4. What device is considered an intermediary device? switch 5. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets? data link 6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.) determine pathways for data retime and retransmit data signals manage data flows 7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header? the path to use to reach the destination host 8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer? application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.) Network B — WAN Network C — LAN Network A — LAN 10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.) identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device enables the reassembly of complete messages 11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic? encapsulation 12. What is a PDU? a layer specific encapsulation 13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?" an end device 14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices? E, F, H, I, J 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area? intermediary 16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.) A LAN is usually in a single geographical area. The network is administered by a single organization. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization. 17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown? LAN 18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer? data representation, encoding, and control 19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network? retime and retransmit data signals 20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment? to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices 21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.) define the structure of layer specific PDU's outline the functions necessary for communications between layers require layer dependent encapsulations Related posts: CCNA 1 Module 2

CCNA v4 E1 Module 3 (above 90%) Posted: 04 Jun 2011 02:54 PM PDT 1. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS? used by the server to resolve names 2. What are two forms of application layer software? applications syntax 3. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server? FTP 4. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? decentralized resources resource sharing without a dedicated server 5. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network? application 6. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? acts as both a client and server within the same communication hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files does not require specialized software 7. What is the role of the OSI application layer? provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network 8. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? DNS, SMTP, POP 9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? MDA, MTA 10. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? HTTPS HTTP 11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? receives email from the client's MUA passes email to the MDA for final delivery uses SMTP to route email between servers 12. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet? does not support encryption 13. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 14. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address? DNS 15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5? 80 16. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? initiate data exchanges may upload data to servers 17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? SMB 18. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? centralized administration security is easier to enforce 19. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? User accounts are centralized. Security is difficult to enforce. 20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services? uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service Related posts: CCNA 1 Chapter 3 CCNA v4 E1 Module 2 (above 90%)

CCNA 1 Final 2011 Posted: 04 Jun 2011 02:54 AM PDT Exam Viewer – ENetwork Final Exam – Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) Below you will find the assessment items as presented on the exam as well as the scoring rules associated with the item. Use of the exam information in the Exam Viewer is subject to the terms of the Academy Connection Website Usage Agreement between you and Cisco. The purpose of the Exam Viewer is to support instruction while not compromising exam security for other Cisco Networking Academies or students. This material should not be distributed outside a proctored and controlled setting. If misuse is found, action will be taken to limit access to assessment content. Please remember to logout and close your browser window after using the Exam Viewer. 1 When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data? connectionless acknowledgements upper-layer connection-oriented protocols Network layer IP protocols Transport layer UDP protocols   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   2 Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices? Connection 1 – rollover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – rollover cable Connection 3 – crossover cable Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – crossover cable Connection 1 – straight-through cable Connection 2 – crossover cable Connection 3 – straight-through cable Connection 1 – crossover cable Connection 2 – straight-through cable Connection 3 – crossover cable   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   3 Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission? application presentation session transport   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   4 What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.) uses a flat structure prevent broadcasts heirarchical uniquely identifies each host 48 bits in length contains a network portion   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 3, Option 4, and Option 6 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   5 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC? Use the ipconfig /all command at the host's command prompt. Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt. Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway. Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites. Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer’s website.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   6 Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.) 10 Base-T 10 Base-2 10 Base-5 100 Base-FX 100 Base TX 1000 Base LX   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 4 and Option 6 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   7 Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent? The host’s default gateway. The host’s IP address. The host’s primary domain name server. The IP address of the website resolver1.mooki.local. The IP address of the host’s homepage.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   8 Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram. 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA 1.MDA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MUA 7.POP 8.MDA 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 5 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   9 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.) TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols. TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets. UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data. TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1, Option 4, and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   10 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services? application presentation session transport network   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   11 Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem? IP address incorrectly entered network cables unplugged subnet mask incorrectly entered network card failure   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   12 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A? IP address: 192.168.100.19; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.16.1.2 IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17 IP address: 192.168.100.21; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18 IP address: 192.168.100.22; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 10.1.1.5 IP address: 192.168.100.30; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.1.1 IP address: 192.168.100.31; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.18   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   13 As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0? 255.255.0.0 255.255.248.0 255.255.252.0 255.255.254.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   14 What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.) Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority. A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 3, Option 5, and Option 6 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   15 Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 200.100.50.0 to 200.100.25.255 150.150.0.0 to 150.150.255.255 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 127.16.0.0 to 127.31.255.255   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1, Option 4, and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   16 Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255? 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   17 Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created? vty aux console enable secret enable password   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   18 Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)  Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login The entries specify three Telnet lines for remote access. The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access. The entries set the console and Telnet password to “c13c0″. Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete. Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 2 and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   19 When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? when the interface is functioning as a DTE device when the interface timers have been cleared when the connected DTE device is shut down when the interface is functioning as a DCE device   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   20 Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.) physical addressing encoding routing cabling media access control   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1 and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   21 A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? access point host hub router switch   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   22 Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.) 192.168.18.38 192.168.18.48 192.168.18.49 192.168.18.52 192.168.18.59 192.168.18.63   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 3, Option 4, and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   23 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.) This exchange is part of the three-way handshake. The source port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated. The data is flowing from server to client. The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated. The data listed is associated with the transport layer. The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 4 and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   24 Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured? leaving host A leaving ATL leaving Dallas leaving NYC   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   25 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.) The data is encrypted. The connection type is called a VTY session. A server process is running on PC1. A GET request is sent to RouterB. The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 2 and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   26 Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.) segment1 segment2 segment3 segment4 segment5   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1, Option 3, and Option 4 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   27 Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.) The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing. The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network. The network of this computer can have 126 hosts. The prefix of the computer address is /27. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is routable on the Internet. The IP address that is assigned to the computer is a broadcast address.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1, Option 2, and Option 4 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   28 Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.) 172.16.4.63 /26 172.16.4.129 /26 172.16.4.191 /26 172.16.4.51 /27 172.16.4.95 /27 172.16.4.221 /27   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1, Option 3, and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 3   29 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network? Host A was assigned a network address. Host B was assigned a multicast address. Host A and Host B belong to different networks. The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   30 The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data? service port number host logical address device physical address virtual connection identifier   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 1 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   31 During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer? two networks routing the packets two applications communicating the data two hosts at either end of the communication two nodes on the local network exchanging the frame   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   32 Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server? 00-08-a3-b6-ce-46 198.133.219.25:80 http://www.cisco.com C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   33 Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network? star ring point-to-point multiaccess mesh   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 4 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   34 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication? Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.62 Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.62 Destination MAC: BBBB:BBBB:BBBB Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75 Destination MAC: DDDD:DDDD:DDDD Destination IP: 172.22.0.94   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 5 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   35 Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet? The packet will be dropped. The packet will be forwarded via FastEthernet 0/0. The packet will be forwarded to the destination host. The packet will be forwarded to the 192.168.1.3 next-hop address.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   36 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices? A, B, D, G A, B, E, F C, D, G, I G, H, I, J   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 1 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   37 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational? 127.0.0.1 192.168.64.196 192.168.254.1 192.168.254.9 192.168.254.254   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   38 Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ? Switch-6J> Switch-6J# Switch-6J(config)# Switch-6J(config-if)# Switch-6J(config-line)#   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   39 A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure? console enable enable secret VTY   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   40 Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers? 0 to 255 0 to 1023 1024 to 49151 49152 to 65535   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   41 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.) This is a server response. The UDP protocol is being used. The destination port indicates a Telnet session. The return segment will contain a source port of 23. The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 3 and Option 4 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   42 In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored? Flash NVRAM RAM ROM   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   43 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.) A single broadcast domain is present Two logical address ranges are required. Three broadcast domains are shown. Four networks are needed. Five collision domains exist.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 1 and Option 5 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   44 Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown? 1 3 4 5 7   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   45 Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.) The cable is unusable and must be rewired. The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet straight-through. The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover. The cable is suitable for use as a rollover cable. The cable is suitable for use as a Gigabit Ethernet crossover. The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response Option 3 and Option 6 are correct. 1 point for each correct option. 0 points if more options are selected than required. Max Value = 2   46 Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1? London Paris Athens Ankara PC4   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   47 Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA? a FTP client a telnet client a terminal emulation program a web browser   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 3 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   48 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame? only computer D only computer A and computer D only computer B, computer C, and computer D all computers   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 1 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   49 Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network? address translation DHCP services ftpd web server   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 1 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2   50 Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue? issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0 issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1 issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0 issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1   Scoring Rule For: correctness of response 2 points for Option 2 0 points for any other option Max Value = 2 Tags: all about ccna Related posts: CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 10 Exam Answers 2011 CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 11 Exam Answers 2011 CCNA Exploration 1 – Module 8 Exam Answers 2011

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