CCNA Exploration 4.0

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• CCNA v4 E4 Module 3 (100%)
• CCNA 1 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers 100% Updated 2011
• CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 100% updated 2011

CCNA v4 E4 Module 3 (100%) Posted: 06 Jun 2011 02:54 AM PDT 1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service? Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider. 2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct? Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues. 3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)? locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit 4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network? virtual circuit 5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) Inverse ARP LMI status messages 6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be known about the configuration of router R1 from the output? The command encapsulation frame-relay ietf has been used on the Serial 0/0/0 interface. 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two outcomes occur from the configuration shown? (Choose two.) The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1. Frames arriving on interface serial 0/0/0 of RT_1 will have a data link layer address of 22. 8. Refer to the exhibit. What effect does the point-to-point configuration on subinterface S0/0.110 have on the operation of the router? It eliminates split horizon issues without increasing the likelihood of routing loops. 9. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. Router HQ belongs to both the 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24 subnets with IP addresses of 172.16.1.3 and 172.16.2.3 respectively. Traffic between R1 and R2 must travel through HQ first. How should the serial interface on HQ be configured to complete the topology? two point-to-point subinterfaces 10. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the configuration of router R1 from the exhibited output? The LMI type for the Serial 0/0/0 interface has been left to its default configuration. 11. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about the Frame Relay switch from the output shown? It is experiencing congestion. 12. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true given the output shown? (Choose two.) The local DLCI number is 401. Inverse ARP is being used on this connection. 13. Refer to the exhibit. A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping? 110 14. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. Which set of configuration options for routers R2 and R3 would provide each router connectivity to R1? R2(config)# interface serial0/0/1.201 point-to-point R2(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 201 R3(config)# interface serial0/0/1.301 point-to-point R3(config-if)# frame-relay interface-dlci 301 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement explains why the Frame Relay connection between R1 and R2 is failing? The frame-relay map commands are using incorrect DLCIs. 16. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is part of a Frame Relay network that uses OSPF for IP routing. After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 will not exchange OSPF information correctly. What is the likely cause? The frame-relay map command requires the broadcast keyword. 17. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a Frame Relay connection, an administrator entered the show interfaces s0/0 command and received the output shown in the exhibit. What are two probable reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) The router is not configured for the same Frame Relay PVC as the switch. The LMI type on the Frame Relay switch is NOT ANSI. 18. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output? Serial 0/0/0 has been configured with an DLCI of 201. 19. What consideration must be taken into account if RIP is used on Frame Relay multiaccess networks? To forward routing updates, address-to-DLCI mapping must be done via the use of the frame-relay map command coupled with the broadcast keyword. 20. Which three actions does a Frame Relay switch perform when it detects an excessive build-up of frames in its queue? (Choose three.) drops frames from the queue that have the DE bit set sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link 21. What two methods does Frame Relay technology use to process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.) Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery. The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender. 22. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured for Frame Relay connectivity to routers R2 and R3. What configuration option should be configured on the R2 and R3 serial interfaces in order for all routers to ping each other successfully? R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 201 broadcast R2(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.3 201 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 301 broadcast R3(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.2 301 broadcast

CCNA 1 Chapter 3 V4.0 Answers 100% Updated 2011 Posted: 04 Jun 2011 10:13 PM PDT Updated 2011 100% www.ccnafinal.net 1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server? HTML HTTP FTP Telnet 2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.) applications dialogs requests services syntax 3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.) centralized administration does not require specialized software security is easier to enforce lower cost implementation provides a single point of failure 4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS? temporarily holds resolved entries used by the server to resolve names sent by the client to during a query passes authentication information between the server and client 5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address? HTTP SSH FQDN DNS Telnet SMTP 6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) ARP DNS PPP SMTP POP ICMP 7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.) acts as both a client and server within the same communication. requires centralized account administration. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files. can be used in client-server networks. requires a direct physical connection between devices. centralized authentication is required. 8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.) DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client POP delivers email from the client to the server email server SMTP supports file sharing Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.) MDA IMAP MTA POP SMTP MUA 10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet? not widely available does not support encryption consumes more network bandwidth does not support authentication 11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.) routes email to the MDA on other servers receives email from the client's MUA receives email via the POP3 protocol passes email to the MDA for final delivery uses SMTP to route email between servers delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol 12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.) ASP FTP HTML HTTP HTTPS IP 13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.) User accounts are centralized. Security is difficult to enforce. Specialized operating system software is required. File permissions are controlled by a single computer. A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network? physical session network presentation application transport 15. ccna 1 chapter 3 answers 100% Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5? 80 1261 15533 3912 65520 16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.) scalable one way data flow decentralized resources centralized user accounts resource sharing without a dedicated server 17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? DHCP DNS SMB SMTP Telnet 18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.) use daemons initiate data exchanges are repositories of data may upload data to servers listen for requests from servers 19. What is the role of the OSI application layer? provides segmentation of data provides encryption and conversion of data provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices 20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services? ceases all connections to the service denies multiple connections to a single daemon suspends the current connection to allow the new connection uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service Tags: Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two )

CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 100% updated 2011 Posted: 04 Jun 2011 10:07 PM PDT CCNA 1 Chapter 2 V4.0 Answers 100% updated 2011 1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.) determine pathways for data initiate data communications retime and retransmit data signals originate the flow of data manage data flows final termination point for data flow 2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.) define the structure of layer specific PDU's dictate how to accomplish layer functions outline the functions necessary for communications between layers limit the need for hardware compatibility require layer dependent encapsulations eliminate standardization among vendors 3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.) tracks delay between end devices enables consistent network paths for communication allows modification of the original data before transmission identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device 4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation? supports error detection ensures ordered arrival of data provides delivery to correct destination identifies the devices on the local network assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection 5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.) Network Transport Physical Data Link Session 6. What is a PDU? corruption of a frame during transmission data reassembled at the destination retransmitted packets due to lost communication a layer specific encapsulation 7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network? manage data flows originate data flow retime and retransmit data signals determine pathways for data 8.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?" the destination device an end device an intermediate device a media device 9.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.) Network A — WAN Network B — WAN Network C — LAN Network B — MAN Network C — WAN Network A – LAN 10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.) A LAN is usually in a single geographical area. The network is administered by a single organization. The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection. The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider. A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization. Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP). 11.   ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic? piping PDU streaming multiplexing encapsulation 12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment? to identify devices on the local media to identify the hops between source and destination to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices 13. What device is considered an intermediary device? file server IP phone laptop printer switch 14. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B? source end transfer intermediary 15. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown? WAN MAN LAN WLAN 16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets? physical data link network transport 17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header? the destination device on the local media the destination host address the bits that will be transferred over the media the source application or process creating the data 18. ccna 1 chapter 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices? A, C, D B, E, G, H C, D, G, H, I, J D, E, F, H, I, J E, F, H, I, J 19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer? No address is added. The logical address is added. The physical address is added. The process port number is added. 20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer? path determination and packet switching data presentation reliability, flow control, and error detection network media control the division of segments into packets 21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer? physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application Tags: CCNA 2 all final answers v4 0 100%

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