192.168.20.24/29 the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address.
Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server?
A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Ans: C
62. Which two statements about the store and forward switching method are true? (Choose two)
A. Latency remains constant regardless of frame size.
B. Latency through the switch varies with frame length.
C. The switch receives the complete frame before beginning to forward it.
D. The switch checks the destination address as soon as it receives the header and begins forwarding the frame immediately.
Ans: B,C
Explanation:
With store-and-forward, the entire frame is received by the switch before the first bit of the frame is forwarded. As soon as the incoming switch port receives enough of the frame to see the destination MAC address, the forwarding decision is made and the frame is transmitted out the appropriate outgoing port to the destination device. So, each frame might experience slightly less latency.
64. Which of the following statements are characteristic of a typical VLAN arrangement? (Choose three)
A. VLANs logically divide a switch into multiple, independent switches at Layer 2.
B. A VLAN can span multiple switches.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of broadcast domains.
D. Trunk links can carry traffic for multiple VLANs.
E. VLAN implementation significantly increases traffic on a network because trunking information must be added to each packet.
F. VLANs extend the collision domain to include multiple switches.
Ans: A,B,D
65. Which of the following options can be negotiated using LCP during the PPP link establishment? (Choose three)
A. callback
B. IPCP
C. CHAP
D. multilink
E. TCP
F. Q.931
Ans: B,C,D
Explanation:
71. Your Quest4 Certification trainee Bob asks you what 11111000 binary is in decimal. What should you tell him?
A. 5
B. 192
C. 224
D. 240
E. 248
Ans: E
Explanation:
128 + 64+32+16+8 = 248
74. You are working as network administrator/technician at Quest4 Certification Inc.
While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, you observe steady link lights on both the
workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstation is connected. However, when the ping
command is issued from the workstation, the output message “Request timed out” is displayed.
At which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. The session layer
B. The protocol layer
C. The data link layer
D. The access layer
E. The network layer
F. The application layer
Ans: E
Explanation:
TCP/IP includes ICMP, a protocol designed to help manage and control the operation of a TCP/IP network. The ICMP protocol provides a wide variety of information about a network’s health and operational status. Control message is the most descriptive part of a name. ICMP helps control and manage IP’s work and therefore is considered part of TCP/IP’s network layer.
77. An OSPF interface has been configured with the bandwidth 64 command.
What will be the calculated OSPF cost of this link?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 1562
D. 64000
E. 128000
Ans: C
Explanation:
cost = 10^8 / bandwidth in bps = 1562
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1835/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00800b3f2e.html
78. What is the purpose of DLCIs in Frame Relay?
A. The determine the Frame Relay encapsulation type.
B. They identify the logical circuit between a local router and a Frame Relay WAN switch.
C. They represent the keepalives used to maintain the PVC in an active state.
D. They represent the physical address of the router attached to a Frame Relay network.
Ans: B
Explanation:
Routers use the data-link connection identifier (DLCI) as the Frame Replay address, which identifies the VC over which the frame should travel.
79. Which statements is true regarding the command sequence shown below? (Choose three)
RouterA(config)# interface loopback 0
RouterA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.31.33 255.255.255.255
A. It creates a virtual, software only, interface.
B. It uses a wildcard mask of 255.255.255.255.
C. It ensures that an interface is always active for OSPF processes.
D. It provides a way to test the convergence of OSPF routing updates.
E. The mask of 255.255.255.255 is called a host mask.
F. These commands can only be issued to configure serial interfaces.
Ans: A,B,D
80. Quest4 Certification wants to implement 1000mbps Ethernet. Which IEEE standards apply in this scenario? (chose 2)?
A. 802.3ae
B. 802.3u
C. 802.3z
D. 802.3i
E. 802.3ab
F. 802.3e
Ans: C,E
IEEE 802.3z 1000BASE-SX.
The 1000BaseT standard was released in June 1999, defined by IEEE 802.3ab.
Incorrect Answer:
On June 17, 2002 the IEEE 802.3ae specification for 10 Gigabit Ethernet was approved as an IEEE standard by the IEEE Standards Association (IEEE-SA) Standards Board.
IEEE 802.3u 100BASE-TX
81. Which statement describes the routing protocol OSPF( Choose 3)?
A. it supports VLSM
B. it is used to router between Autonomous System.
C. It confines network instability to one area of network.
D. It increases routing overhead over the network
E. It allows extensive control of the routing update
F. It is simpler to configure than RIPv2
Ans: A,C,E
82. Error detection schemes use which field of frame to detect error?
A. .MTU
B. MAC
C. FCS
D. PDU
E. ERR
F. Flag
Ans: C
83. Your Quest4 Certification trainee Tess asks you to list options for Frame LMI types. (Choose three)
A. IETF
B. Q.931
C. Q933a
D. IEEE
E. Cisco
F. ANSI
Ans: C,E,F
84. Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Choose three)
A. 15.234.118.63
B. 82.11.178.93
C. 134.178.18.56
D. 192.168.16.87
E. 201.45.116.159
F. 217.63.12.192
Ans: B,C,D
85. Which command will provide you with information regarding the Layer 3 configuration of directly connected router interfaces?
A. show ip interface
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show cdp neighbors detail
D. show ip route
E. show ip link status
F. telnet
Ans: C
87. You have a Class B network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the resulting network? (Choose two)
A. There are 254 usable hosts per subnet.
B. There is one usable network.
C. There are 255 usable hosts per subnet.
D. There are 254 usable subnets.
E. There are 30 usable subnets.
F. There are 64 usable hosts per subnet.
Ans: A,D
88. When setting up Frame Relay for point-to-point subinterfaces, which of the following must not be configured?
A. The Frame Relay encapsulation on the physical interface.
B. The local DLCI on each subinterface.
C. An IP address on the physical interface.
D. The subinterface type as point-to-point.
Ans: C
89. The following access list was applied outbound on the E0 interface connected to the 192.168.1.8/29 LAN:
access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20 any
access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any
What effect will this access list have?
A. All traffic will be allowed to exit E0 except FTP traffic.
B. FTP traffic from 192.168.1.22 to any host will be denied.
C. FTP traffic from 192.168.1.9 to any host will be denied.
D. All traffic exiting E0 will be denied.
E. All FTP traffic to network 192.168.1.9/29 from any host will be denied.
Ans: D
90. Which command is used to display the placement and direction of an IP access control list on a router?
A. show access-list
B. show ip route
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
E. show interface list
F. show ip interface brief
Ans: C
91. Which of the following are characteristics of microsegmentation? (Choose two)
A. Dedicated paths between sending and receiving hosts are established.
B. The number of collision domains is decreased.
C. Broadcast domains are enlarged.
D. Multiple subnetwork broadcast addresses are created.
E. Multiple ARP tables are required on the connected hosts.
F. Bandwidth is dedicated to connect hosts.
Ans: A,F
92. You are the network administrator of the Quest4 Certification company and receive a call from a user who is unable to reach a server at a remote site. After further review you discover the following information.
local PC 10.0.3.35/24
default gateway 10.0.3.1
remote server 10.0.5.250/24
You then conduct the following tests from the offending local PC.
ping 127.0.0.1 – unsuccessful
ping 10.0.3.35 – unsuccessful
ping 10.0.3.1 – unsuccessful
ping 10.0.5.250 – unsuccessful
Which of the following problems would create the test results listed above?
A. TCP/IP not correctly installed.
B. Local physical layer problem.
C. Default gateway down.
D. Remote physical layer problem.
Ans: A
93. Your boss at Quest4 Certification wants to know why the Spanning-Tree algorithm is used in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments.
B. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches.
E. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
Ans: C
94. Your Quest4 Certification trainee Tess ask you which parameter must be supplied when initializing the IGRP routing process. What should you tell her?
A. Connected network numbers
B. IP address mask
C. Metric weights
D. Autonomous system number
E. Register administrative id
Ans: D
95. You work as a network technician at Quest4 Certification. You need to add a new VLAN, named ACCOUNTS, to
your switched network.
Which of the following are true regarding configuration of this VLAN? (Choose three)
A. The VLAN must be created.
B. The VLAN must be named.
C. An IP address must be configured for the ACCOUNTS VLAN.
D. The desired ports must be added to the new VLAN.
E. The VLAN must be added to the STP domain.
Ans: A,B,D
96. Bob, your Quest4 Certification trainee, want to segment a network. What devices could he use?
(Choose three)
A. hub
B. repeater
C. switch
D. bridge
E. router
F. media converter
Ans: C,D,E
97. The junior Quest4 Certification trainee Ellen asks you to describe what is specific for a global command.
What should you tell her?
A. A command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status.
B. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
C. A command that is universal in application that supports all protocols.
D. A command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions.
E. A command that is set once and affects the entire router.
Ans: E
98. What is the range of binary values for the first octet in Class B addresses?
A. 10000000-11111111
B. 00000000-10111111
C. 10000000-10111111
D. 10000000-11011111
E. 11000000-11101111
Ans: C
99. Which of the following access list statements will deny all telnet connections to subnet 10.0.1.0/24?
A. access-list 15 deny tcp 10.0.1.0 255.255.255.0 eq telnet
B. access-list 115 deny tcp any 10.0.1.0 eq telnet
C. access-list 115 deny udp any 10.0.10 eq 23
D. access-list 115 deny tcp any 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
E. access-list 15 deny telnet any 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
Ans: D
100. Your boss at Quest4 Certification wants to know why the Spanning-Tree algorithm is used in a switched LAN?
A. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments.
B. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths.
C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths.
D. To manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches.
E. To segment a network into multiple collision domains.
Ans: C
101. Which wireless data command type has a high data rate but is limited to very short distances?
A. narrowband
B. spread spectrum
C. infrared
D. broadband personal comm. Service (PCS)
Ans: B
102. Which protocol admin overhead in a switch network by allowing the configuring of a new VLAN to be distributed to all the switches in a domain?
A. STP
B. VTP
C. GVRP
D. SNMP
E. DHCP
Ans: B
Explanation:
The basic goals of VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) are to manage all configured VLANs across a switched internetwork and to maintain consistency throughout that network. VTP allows an administrator to add, delete, and rename VLANs—information that is then propagated to all other switches in the VTP domain.
103. Which of the following are types of crosstalk?
A. near-end crosstalk(NEXT)
B. jitter crosstalk(JEXT)
C. far end crosstalk(FEXT)
D. middle closed-end crosstalk(MCEXT)
E. power sum near-end crosstalk(PSNEXT)
Ans: A,C
104. Which of the following are VLAN frame encapsulation types that may be configured on a catalyst switch? (Choose 2)
A. VTP
B. ISL
C. CDP
D. 802.10
E. LLC
Ans: B,D
105. What command will configure an interface on a Catalyst 2900 series switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to another directly connected switch? (Choose two)
A. Switch(config-if)# vlan all
B. Switch(config-if)# switchport access clan 30
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Ans: C,E
106.Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three)
A. To decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. To reduce routing overhead
C. To speed up convergence
D. To confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. To reduce the complexity of router configuration
Ans: B,C,D
107. A network administrator is trying to add a new router into a established OSPF network. The networks attached to the new router do not appear in the routing tables of the other OSPF routers. Given the information in the partial configuration shown below, what configuration error is causing this problem?
Router(config)# router ospf 1
Router(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 area 0
A. The process id is configured improperly
B. The OSPF area is configured improperly
C. The network wildcard mask is configured improperly
D. The network number is configured improperly
E. The AS is configured improperly
F. The network subnet mask is configured improperly
Ans: C
108. Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network
192.168.16.0/24 to OSPF area 0? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)# router ospf 0
B. Router(config)# router ospf 1
C. Router(config)# router ospf area 0
D. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 0
E. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
F. Router(config-router)# network 192.168.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
Ans: B,E
109. Network broadcast traffic from the Business Department is needlessly reaching the Engineering Department LAN. What can be done to contain this traffic within the Business Department network while maintaining connectivity with enterprise servers and the Internet? (Choose two)
A. Establish a VTP domain to contain the extraneous traffic
B. Provide greater bandwidth to the Engineering Department LAN
C. Utilize full-duplex Ethernet on the Engineering Department LAN
D. Place the business department on a separate subnet and route between networks
E. Change the switch IP address to an address on the Engineering Department LAN
F. Create separate VLANs and subnets for the two departments and route between the two
Ans: D,F
110. OSPF routing uses the concept of areas.
What are the characteristics of OSPF areas? (Choose three)
A. Each OSPF area requires a loopback interface to be configured
B. Areas may be assigned any number from 0 to 65535
C. Area 0 is called the backbone area
D. Hierarchical OSPF networks do not require multiple areas
E. Multiple OSPF areas must connect to area 0
F. Single area OSPF networks must be configured in area 1
Ans: B,C,E
111.How is spanning-tree path cost determined by default?
A. Total hop count
B. Sum of the costs based on bandwidth
C. Dynamically determined based on load
D. Individual link cost based on latency
Ans: B
Explanation:
The STP cost is an accumulated total path cost based on the available bandwidth of each of the links.
112. Refer to the graphic.
What should be the IP address of the host?
A. 192.168.5.14
B. 192.168.5.32
C. 192.168.5.40
D. 192.168.5.47
E. 192.168.5.55
Ans: C
113. Which mode can be used to quickly configure a router for basic operations?
A. RXBOOT mode
B. SETUP mode
C. ROM Monitor mode
D. Autoflash mode
Ans: B
114. Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
E. Layer 6
F. Layer 7
Ans: C
115. On which types of network will OSPF elect a backup designated router?
A. Point-to-point and multiaccess
B. Point-to-multipoint and multiaccess
C. Point-to-point and point-to-multipoint
D. Nonbroadcast and broadcast multipoint
E. Nonbroadcast and broadcast multiaccess
Ans: E
Explanation:
DR and BDR are elected on broadcast and nonbroadcast multi-access networks.
116.
Popcorn# show ip protocols
Routing Protocol is “rip”
Sending updates every 30 seconds, next due in 13 seconds
Invalid after 180 seconds, hold down 180, flushed after 240
Outgoing update filter list for all interfaces is
Incoming update filter list for all interfaces is
Redistribution: rip
Default version control: send version 1, receive any version
Interface Send Recv Triggered RIP Key-chain
Ethernet0 1 12
Ethernet1 1 12
Serial 1 12
Routing for Networks:
222.8.4.0
10.1.1.0
Routing Information Sources:
Gateway Distance Last Update
222.8.4.1 120 00:00:04
An administrator who is consoled into the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface.
Use the graphic and command output to identify possible causes for this problem. (Choose two)
A. The Serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
B. The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
C. The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
D. The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.
E. The clockrate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.
Ans: B, C
117.
RtrA#debug ip rip
Rip protocol debugging is on
RtrA#
1d05h: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet0/0
(172.16.1.1)
1d05h: RIP: build update entries
1d05h: network 10.0.0.0 metric 1
1d05h: network 192.168.1.0 metric 2
1d05h: RIP: sending v1 update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial0/0
(10.0.8.1)
1d05h: RIP: build update entries
1d05h: network 172.16.0.0 metric 1
RtrA#
1d05h: RIP: received v1 update from 10.0.15.2 on Serial0/0
1d05h: 192.168.1.0 in 1 hops
1d05h: 192.168.0 in 16 hops (inaccessible)
Which of the following are true regarding the command output shown in the display? (Choose two)
A. There are at least two routers participating in the RIP process.
B. A ping to 192.168.168.2 will be successful.
C. A ping to 10.0.15.2 will be successful.
D. RtrA has three interfaces participating in the RIP process.
Ans: A,C
118. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 231?
A. 11010011
B. 11011011
C. 11100111
D. 11101011
E. 11110011
Ans: C
119. Which type of EIGRP route entry describes a feasible successor?
A. A backup route, stored in the routing table
B. A primary route, stored in the routing table
C. A backup route, stored in the topology table
D. A primary route, stored in the topology table
Ans: C
120. What are the advantages of using full-duplex Ethernet instead of half-duplex? (Choose two)
A. Uses inexpensive hubs
B. Provides faster data transfer
C. Utilizes fewer pairs of wires
D. Operates without collisions
E. Operates on coaxial cable
Ans: B,D
121. While troubleshooting a network problem, a technician discovers that the current copy of the Cisco IOS is outdated and needs to be updated.
Which of the following commands would the technician issue to replace the Cisco router IOS with the newer version?
A. Router# copy tftp flash
B. Router(config)# restore flash
C. Router(config)# repair flash
D. Router# copy flash run
E. Router> copy start flash
F. Router# copy start flash
Ans: A
122. Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. VTP
B. STP
C. RIP
D. CDP
Ans: B
123. Which WAN protocol is used for out-of-band signaling?
A. NCP
B. HDLC
C. LAPB
D. LAPD
Ans: D
124. A Cisco router and a router from another manufacturer are directly connected via a serial link. Which command can be used on the Cisco router to form a WAN connection between the routers?
A. Lab(config-if)# encapsulation hdlc ansi
B. Lab(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
C. Lab(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay default
D. Lab(config-if)# encapsulation isdn
Ans: B
125. Which address represents a unicast address?
A. 224.1.5.2
B. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
C. 192.168.24.59/30
D. 255.255.255.255
E. 172.31.128.255./18
Ans: C
126. Which characteristics describe the routing protocol EIGRP? (Choose two)
A. Has a maximum hop count of 255
B. Uses a 32-bit metric
C. Can differentiate between internal and external routes
D. Supports a single routed protocol
E. Can maintain only a single routing table
F. Required all networks within an AS to use the same subnet mask
Ans: B,C
127. What type of packets do routers running OSPF send to maintain connectivity with neighboring routers?
A. dead interval packets
B. hello packets
C. LSU packets
D. OSP packets
E. keepalive packets
Ans: B
128. What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. Beacons received on point-to-point links
E. Routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Ans: A,C
129. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Ans: C
130. A catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete and add VLANs to a management
domain?
A. Client
B. Server
C. Domains
D. Transparent
E. Designated.
Ans: A
Explanation:
VTP Modes
If you intend to make a switch part of a VTP management domain, each switch must be configured in one of three possible VTP modes. The VTP mode assigned to a switch will determine how the switch interacts with other VTP switches in the management domain. The three VTP modes that can be assigned to a Cisco switch include server mode, client mode, and transparent mode. Each of these roles is outlined below:
contents of these messages. When individual VLANs are added, deleted, or modified on a switch
running in transparent mode, the changes are local to that particular switch only, and are not passed to other switches in the VTP management domain.
Based on the roles of each VTP mode, the use of each should be more or less obvious. For example, if you had 15 Cisco switches on your network, you could configure each of them to be in the same VTP management domain. Although each could theoretically be left in the default Server Mode, it would probably be easier to leave only one switch in this configuration, and then configure all remaining switches for VTP Client Mode. Then, when you need to add, delete, or modify a VLAN, that change can be carried out on the VTP Server Mode switch and passed to all Client Mode switches automatically. In cases where you need a switch to act in a relatively standalone manner, or dont want it to propagate information about its configured VLANs, use Transparent Mode.
131. Which of the following are types of flow control? (Choose 3)
A. Buffering.
B. Cut-Through.
C. Windowing.
D. Congestion Avoidance.
E. Load Balancing.
Ans: A,C,D
Explanation:
There are three commonly used methods for handling network congestion:
Buffering:
Buffering is used by network devices to temporarily store bursts of excess data in memory until they can be processed. Occasional data bursts are easily handled by buffering. However, buffers can overflow if data continues at high speeds
Source Quench Messages:
Source quench messages are used by receiving devices to help prevent their buffers from overflowing. The receiving device sends a source quench message to request that the source reduce its current rate of data transmission.
Windowing:
Windowing is a flow-control method in which the source device requires an acknowledgement from the destination after a certain number of packets have been transmitted.
1. The source device sends a few packets to the destination device.
2. After receiving the packets, the destination device sends an acknowledgment to the source.
3. The source receives the acknowledgment and sends the same amount of packets.
4. If the destination does not receive one or more of the packets for some reason (such as overflowing buffers), it does not send an acknowledgment. The source will then retransmits the packets at a reduced transmission rate.
1. RouterTK#show ip route
Codes: C-connected, s-static, l –IGRP, R –RIP, M –mobile, B –BGP, D –EIGRP, EX – EIGRP external, O – OSPF, IA –OSPF inter area, EI –OSPF external type 1, E2 –OSPF external type 2, E –EGP, i –IS-IS, L1 –IS-IS level-1, L2 –IS-IS level-2, * -candidate default, U – per-user static route
Gateway of last resort is not set
R 202.30.8.0 /24[120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:16, Serial 0
C 202.30.9.0 /24 is directly connected, Serial 1
R 202.30.10.0 /24 is possibly down, routing via 202.30.9.1, Serial 1
R 202.30.11.0 /24 is possibly down, routing via 202.30.9.1, Serial 1
C 202.30.1.0 /24 is directly connected, Ethernet 0
C 202.30.2.0 /24 is directly connected, Serial 0
R 202.30.3.0 /24 [120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:17. Serial 0
R 202.30.4.0 /24 [120/15/ via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:17, Serial 0
R 202.30.5.0 /24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:17, Serial 0
R 192.158.6.0 /24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:17, Serial 0
R 202.30.7.0 /24 [120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:17, Serial 0
You are troubleshooting a router with default settings. You are concerned about the 202.30.10.0 and 202.30.11.0 routes. In particular you are interested how long they will be kept in the routing table. What would be the maximum time these routes would be kept in the routing table?
A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 240 seconds
D. 360 seconds
E. 630 seconds
Ans: C
Explanation: The Rs on the 202.30.10.0 and 202.30.11.0 lines (see below) indicates that the routes were learned from the RIP protocol. :
R 202.30.10.0 /24 is possibly down, routing via 202.30.9.1, Serial 1
R 202.30.11.0 /24 is possibly down, routing via 202.30.9.1, Serial 1
Note: The hold down timer for RIP is 180 sec. The flush timer for RIP is 240 sec.
2. RouterTK#show ip route
Codes: C-connected, s-static, l –IGRP, R –RIP, M –mobile, B –BGP, D –EIGRP, EX – EIGRP external, O – OSPF, IA –OSPF inter area, EI –OSPF external type 1, E2 –OSPF external type 2, E –EGP, i –IS-IS, L1 –IS-IS level-1, L2 –IS-IS level-2, * -candidate default, U – per-user static route
Gateway of last resort is not set
R 202.30.8.0 /24[120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial 0
C 202.30.9.0 /24 is directly connected, Serial 1
R 202.30.10.0 /24 [120/7] via 202.30.9.1, 00:00:02, Serial 1
R 202.30.11.0 /24 [120/7] via 202.30.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial 1
C 202.30.1.0 /24 is directly connected, Ethernet 0
C 202.30.2.0 /24 is directly connected, Serial 0
R 202.30.3.0 /24 [120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10. Serial 0
R 202.30.4.0 /24 [120/15/ via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial 0
R 202.30.5.0 /24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial 0
R 202.30.6.0 /24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial 0
R 202.30.7.0 /24 [120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial 0
You examine the routing table of your router named RouterTK. This routing table will be send to
neighboring routers via broadcasts. Some routes might be discarded and not entered in to the routing
tables of the neighboring RIP routers. Which of the following routes would be discarded in this way?
A. R 202.30.8.0/24 [120/1] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
B. R 202.30.11.0/24 [120/7] via 202.30.9.1, 00:00:03, Serial1
C. C 202.30.1.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0
D. R 202.30.5.0/24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
Ans: D
Explanation: RIP has the maximum hop count of 15. This route already has a hop count of 15 and adding one would make it unreachable (see below). This route will be discarded.
R 202.30.5.0/24 [120/15] via 202.30.2.2, 00:00:10, Serial0
3. At Layer 2 of the OSI model, which component connects a host to the network media?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Bridge
D. NIC
E. Transceiver
Ans: D
Explanation: The data link layer is layer 2 of the OSI model. The data link layer involves frames and uses the burned in MAC addresses that NIC cards and router interfaces have.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A hub operates at the physical layer, layer 1.
B: Bridges operate the Data Link layer, layer 2, of the OSI model. However, they are not used to connect hosts to the network media.
C: Bridges operate the Data Link layer, layer 2, of the OSI model. However, they are used to connect network segments, not to connect hosts to the network media.
E: A transceiver works at the physical layer, layer 1.
4. You are upgrading your Cisco router IOS from a TFTP server over the network. The upgrade procedure is stopped and you are prompted to erase the current flash contents before continuing.
What is most plausible reason for this?
A. There is insufficient room for more than one image.
B. The router has detected a copy of the current software image on the TFTP server.
C. The file can be relocated and not compressed.
D. The image to load is a binary executable file.
Ans: A
Explanation: There might not be enough free Flash memory to store the new image.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Detecting a copy of the image will not stop the procedure nor prompt you to erase the current version.
C: This would not stop the copying of the file.
D: The image is a binary executable file but this will not result in the prompt above.
5. Identify three valid host addresses in the 192.168.27.0 network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240.
(Choose three)
A. 192.168.27.33
B. 192.168.27.112
C. 192.168.27.119
D. 192.168.27.126
E. 192.168.27.175
F. 192.168.27.208
Ans: A,C,D
Explanation: A subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 divides the 4 th octet into a subnet parts: the highest four bits, and a host port: the lowest four bits. We simply check the 4 th octet to check that all subnet and host parts are ok.
ie that cannot be: 0000 or 1111
A: 33 decimal is 00100001. Both the subnet and the host part are ok.
C: 119 decimal is 01110111. Both the subnet and the host part are ok.
D: 126 decimal is 1111110. Both the subnet and the host part are ok.
Incorrect Answers:
B: 112 decimal is 1110000 binary. This is not a valid host address in this network. It has all host bits 0.
E: 175 decimal is 10101111. All host bits are 1’s. This is the local broadcast address and cannot be used as a host address.
F: 208 decimal is 11010000 binary. This is not a valid host address in this network. It has all host bits 0.
7. Which command is required for connectivity in a Frame Relay network if Inverse ARP is not
operational?
A. frame-relay arp
B. frame-relay map
C. frame-relay interface-dlci
D. frame-relay lmi-type
Ans: B
Explanation: If inverse arp is not in use,frame-relay map command maps next-hop router's Layer 3 address with Local DLCI to reach that router.
Incorrect answers:
A: There is no such command.
C: This Command is used to define DLCI to particular physical interface or Sub Interface. Eg. frame-relay interface-dlci 40
D: This Command is used to define type of LMI messages sent to the switch. The supported LMI types are ansi,q933a,cisco
8. A Class C network address has been subnetted with a /27 mask.
Which of the following addresses is a broadcast address for one of the resulting subnets?
A. 201.57.78.33
B. 201.57.78.64
C. 201.57.78.97
D. 201.57.78.97
E. 201.57.78.159
F. 201.57.78.254
Ans: E
Explanation: First task is which IP address is valid Broadcast address for any of the 201.57.78.0/27 subnets. By definition broad cast address means all the host bits are 1. In this example 5 bits are used for host. Verify each IP address 4 th byte in binary form to see 5 least significant bits are 1.
In this example answer E , 4 th byte in the IP address is 159. Decimal value is 1011111. So This is broadcast address for 201.57.78.0/27 network.
Incorrect answers:
A: Binary value for 33 is 00100001. This is not broadcast address for 201.57.78.0/27 network
B: Binary value for 64 is 01000000. This is not broadcast address for 201.57.78.0/27 network
C, D: Binary value for 97 is 01100001 .This is not broadcast address for 201.57.78.0/27 network
F: Binary value for 254 11111110 .This is not broadcast address for 201.57.78.0/27 network
9. Which of the following describe router functions? (Choose three)
A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
Ans: A,C,F
Explanation:
A: Router works in Layer 3 in OSI Model. Packet switching is function of OSI Layer 3.
C: In Packet switching process, packet will be filtered at a particular physical Interface during packet switching.
F: In OSI Model each layer dependent on the layer below and above layer for Internetwork ommunication. Here Router works with Data Link layer and Transport layer.
Incorrect answers:
A: Collision will occur on physical layer. It is not related to Router
D, E: Broadcast activity is not the function of Router. Router will not transmit Broadcast information out to another router.
10. The following access list was applied outbound on he E0 interface connected to the 192.168.1.8/29 LAN:
access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.1.8 0.0.0.7 eq 20
any access-list 123 deny tcp 192.168.1.9 0.0.0.7 eq 21 any
What effect will this access list have?
A. All traffic will be allowed to exit E0 except FTP traffic.
B. FTP traffic from 192.168.1.22 to any host will be denied.
C. FTP traffic from 192.168.1.9 to any host will be denied.
D. All traffic exiting E0 will be denied.
E. All FTP traffic to network 192.168.1.8/29 from any host will be denied.
Ans: D
Explanation:
By default access list is having implicit deny statement at the end. In this example there is no permit statement, so it will deny all traffic exiting E0 Interface.
Incorrect answers
A: It will deny FTP and Telnet Traffic
B,C,E: It will deny all traffic in addition to the condition mentioned in the answer. Because there is no permit statement at the end.
11.Five new routers need to be configured quickly for testing. While connected to a router by console, the administrator copies and pastes a configuration from e text file, a part of which is shown in the exhibit, into the HyperTerminal window. Why would host 192.168.10.10/29 be unable to ping the Ethernetinterface of the router as a result of this procedure?
hostname Quest4 Certification-A
!
!
interface Ethernet0
ip address 192.168.10.9 255.255.255.248
!
interface Serial0
ip address 172.16.25.1 255.255.255.0
clockrate 56000
!
interface Serial1
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
router rip
network 192.168.10.0
!
line con 0
password Quest4 Certification
login
line aux 0
line vty 0 4
password Quest4 Certification
login
!end
A. The new configuration needs to be saved to the NVRAM before the changes take effect.
B. The router needs to be reloaded before the changes are implemented.
C. The Ethernet network does not show up in the routing table because the RIP configuration is incomplete.
D. The copied configuration did not overwrite the shutdown command on the Ethernet interface.
E. The subnet mask on the router prevents the host from communicating with it.
Ans: D
Explanation: Default configuration of any interface is always shutdown and always needs the command "no shutdown" in the inferface command mode in order to enable the interface.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: Changes on the configuration is real-time and being applied on the running-configuration (RAM) not on startup-configuration (NVRAM).
C: The network in the said question was published (network 192.168.10.0) and will show as directly connected.
E: The subnet mask on the configuration (255.255.255.248) matched the one from the question(/29).
12. A network administrator has been instructed to prevent all traffic originating on the Quest4 Certification1 LANfrom entering the Quest4 Certification2 router. Which command would implement the access list on the interface of the Quest4 Certification2 router?
A. access-list 101 in
B. access-list 101 out
C. ip access-group 101 in
D. ip access-group 101 out
Ans: C
Explanation:
In order to use access list for an interface ip access-group command to be defined on interface. Before defining ip access group in an interface one should configure access-list. If ip access-group is not defined it will permit all traffic.
Incorrect answers:
A, B: There are no such commands.
D: This will apply on an interface for outgoing packets from the interface. Our question requires access-list to be applied for incoming packets to a particular interface on Quest4 Certification2.
13. Which of the following statements regarding routed and routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. A routed protocol is assigned to an interface and determines the method of packet deliver.
B. A routing protocol determines the path of a packet through a network.
C. A routed protocol determines the path of a packet through a network.
D. A routing protocol operates at the transport layer of the OSI model.
E. A routed protocol updates the routing table of a router.
Ans: A,B
Explanation:
A: Routed Protocol delivers data to an interface or host.
B: Routing Protocol Routes data.
Incorrect answers:
C, E: Routed protocol only delivers data, Routed Protocol will not update any routing tables.
D: A Routing Protocol operates on Layer 3 of OSI Model. ie Network layer.
14. What is the subnetwork address for a host with IP address 201.100.5.68/28?
A. 201.100.5.0
B. 201.100.5.32
C. 201.100.5.64
D. 201.100.5.65
E. 201.100.5.31
F. 201.100.5.1
Ans: C
Explanation:
Using the subnet mask prefix value 28 , 4 bits are left for host portion. Total number of hosts are 16 ( 2 are reserved for Network and Broadcast in each subnetwork).
201.100.5.68 host will reside in subnetwork 201.100.5.64. Valid Hosts in this network are 201.100.5.65 to 201.100.5.79.
Incorrect answers:
A: It is network address for subnet 0 . Valid hosts are 201.100.5.1 to 201.100.5.14
B: It is network address. Valid hosts are 201.100.5.33 to 201.100.5.46.
D: It is one of the valid host in subnetwork 201.100.5.64.
E: It is broadcast address
F: It is valid host in subnetwork 201.100.5.0.
16. An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN.
Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Select two)
A. The switch must be configured with an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
B. The switch must be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk.
C. The switch must be reachable through a port connected to its management VLAN.
D. The switch console port must be connected to the Ethernet LAN.
E. The switch management VLAN must be created and have a membership of at least one switch port.
F. The switch must be fully configured as an SMTP agent.
Ans: A,C
Explanation:
A: You need IP address, subnet mask and default gateway.
C: The switch must be reachable from outside of the LAN.
Incorrect Answers:
B: It does not need to be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk (This is router-on-the-stick configuration) and not a requirement of the question.
D: The switch console port must not be connected to the Ethernet LAN but instead to the host (PC) using roll-over cable.
E: The switch management VLAN is already created by default (VLAN1).
F: You don't need SMTP agent for this question, SMTP is for email.
17. Which of the following belong to the ISDN TE2 function group? (Choose two)
A. A standard PC.
B. An ISDN phone.
C. An ISDN terminal adapter.
D. A router serial interface.
E. A router ISDN BRI “U” interface.
Ans: A,D
Explanation:
TE2 is used to connect any non –isdn device by using TA ( Terminal adaptor). In this example Standard PC and router serial interface on non-ISDN Terminals. Router BRI or PRI interface are ISDN compatible ports.
Incorrect answers:
B,C, E: Theses are ISDN compatible devices. It uses ISDN TE1 function.
18. Five minutes after issuing the show running-config command, a technician enters the command again and notices that several access list statements have been altered. Because of this, the technician believes that the router is being configured by an unknown person through Telnet. Before changing the router passwords, the technician would like to discover if anyone is connected to the router by Telnet and stop them from making further changes.
Which commands will accomplish these options? (Choose two)
A. show hosts
B. show sessions
C. show connections
D. disconnect
E. CTRL+SHIFT+6x
F. exit
Ans: B,D
Explanation:
Show sessions will display connection id, hostname and IP address details. Disconnect will inform closing the connection for specified hostname.
Incorrect answers:
A: Show hosts list all hostnames and corresponding ip address in a router.
C: Show connections will provide connection id.
E,F: These are used for exiting from the present mode.
20. What is the purpose of pressing the Ctrl+Break keys during the router password recover procedure?
A. To restart the router.
B. To bypass the configuration in Flash.
C. To view the password before changes are made.
D. To bypass setup configuration mode.
E. To access ROM Monitor mode.
Ans: E
Explanation:
The value 0x2142 to be set for configuration register in case of password recovery procedure. The value to be set in ROM Monitor mode.
Incorrect answers:
A: To restart the router one can execute reload command in Privilege mode.
B: Ctrl+ Break will not bypass the configuration in the flash
C: Ctrl + Break will not show the password
E: Ctrl+Break will not bypass Setup mode. Setup mode is Router configuration mode that prompts the user for basing configuration Parameters.
21. Which connections allow the use of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three)
A. Switch to host
B. Switch to switch
C. Hub to hub
D. Switch to hub
E. Host to host
Ans: A,B,E
Explanation:
Host and Switch works in full duplex mode.
Incorrect answers:
C,D: Hub Operates in half duplex mode. So connection from Hub to hub or Hub to switch works in half duplex mode.
22. Which of the following host addresses are member of networks that can be routed across the public Internet?
A. 10.172.13.65
B. 172.16.223.125
C. 172.64.12.29
D. 192.168.23.252
E. 198.234.12.95
F. 212.192.48.254
Ans: C,E,F
Explanation:
These addresses are not Private addresses defined by RFC 1918. These addresses can be routed across public Internet.
Incorrect answers:
A,B,D: These addresses are in Private address Range:
The range of Private addresses are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255,172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 and
192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255.
23. Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the following addresses can be assigned to network hosts? (Select three.)
A. 15.234.118.63
B. 92.11.178.93
C. 134.178.18.56
D. 192.168.16.87
E. 201.45.116.159
F. 217.63.12.192
Ans: B,C,D
Explanation:
B: Valid Host in subnetwork 2 ( 92.11.178.64 to 92.11.178.95)
C: Valid Host in subnetwork 1(134.178.18.32 to 134.178.18.63)
D: Valid host in subnetwork 2 (192.168.16.64 to 192.168.16.95
Incorrect answers:
A: is a broadcast
E: is a broadcast
F: is a network id
24. A technician at Quest4 Certification needs to update the network documentation. One of the tasks includes
documenting the name of the IOS image file of each router in the network.
Which commands could be used to find this information?
A. Router# show protocols
B. Router# show version
C. Router# show image
D. Router# show IOS
E. Router# show flash
Ans: B
Explanation:
"Show flash" displays all the image files in it. There could be more than one file. However, "show version" displays the one that is currently in use by the router.)
Incorrect answers:
A: Show Protocols will shows routed Protocol using by the router, all interface conditions and their IP address if configured.
C,D. There are no such commands.
27. A router with a serial interface will be used for an ISDN link.
What other function group devices are required to complete the connection to the service provider? (Choose two)
A. TE1
B. TE2
C. TA
D. NT1
E. NT2
Ans: C,D
Explanation:
C: TA is used connect Non ISDN Device. Serial Interface is non-ISDN port. BRI Port is IDSN port.
D: NT1 is required to Connect to Service Provider. It converts 2-wire line from Service Provider into 4-wire line.
Incorrect answers:
A: TE1 is used to connect ISDN Terminal.
B: TE2 is used to connect non-ISDN terminal via TA
E: Equipment that uses T interface point to Telco outside North America.
28. The network 172.12.0.0 needs to be divided into subnets where each subnet has the capacity of 458 IP addresses.
What would be the correct subnet mask to accomplish this division keeping the number of subnets at the maximum?
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: A
Answer - 255.255.254.0
Explanation:
To obtain 459 IP addresses the number of host bits will be 9. In this maximum 512 hosts can be assigned. Keep 9 bits for host means 4 th octet and last bit is 3 rd will be 0. This gives 255.255.254.0 is subnet mask.
29. New switches have been purchased for a network upgrade. The objective for the network design
emphasizes efficient, error-free transport instead of fast transport.
Which switching mode should be configured on the new switches to provide error-free transport to the network?
A. cut-through
B. fragment-free
C. frame-filtering
D. store-and-forward
E. 802.1q forwarding
F. VTP transparent mode
Ans: D
Explanation:
The Switch receives and stores all bits in the frame before forwarding the frame. This allows switch to check the FCS before forwarding the frame. FCS is Ethernet Trailer.
Incorrect answers:
C: The Switch performs the address table lookup as soon as the destination address field in the header is received. The first bits in the frame can be sent out to out port before the final bits in the incoming frame are received. This does not allow the switch to discard frames that fail the FCS check.
D: This is also same as A. But Switch waits 64 bytes to be received before forwarding the first bytes of the outgoing frame. Collisions may occur during first 64 bytes of the frame. Frames in error due to collision will not be forwarded. The FCS still cannot be checked.
C,E,F : They are not related to Switch mode transport.
30. What is the purpose of typing o/r 0x2142 during a password recover procedure on a 2500 series router?
A. To restart the router.
B. To bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
C. To view the lost password.
D. To save the changes to the configuration.
E. To enter ROM Monitor mode.
Ans: B
Explanation:
On setting 0x2142 in ROM Mon mode Router will bypass configuration in NVRAM. After that user can set new password.
Incorrect answers:
A: Restart the router can be executed by reload command
C: Directly one can not view the lost password by changing the config register 0x2142
D: One can save the config by write command.
E: Pressing Ctrl+ break Router will enter into ROM Mon mode.
31. Which command is used to display the placement and direction of an IP access control list on a router?
A. show access-list
B. show ip route
C. show ip interface
D. show interface
E. show interface list
F. show ip interface brief
Ans: C
Explanation: Page 324 of Interconnecting Cisco Network Devices by Steve McQuerry, “The show ip interface command displays IP interface information and indicates whether any access lists are set for a specific interface.”
Incorrect answers:
A: show access-list will display all configured access lists but not the placement or direction
B: show ip route will show the contents of the ip routing table
D: show interface will display the status of an interface, including the encapsulation method, but not the access
32. You are configuring a new Catalyst switch that you want to manage remotely from workstations on other network segments within your enterprise.
Which of the following are required to allow remote management of the switch over IP? (Choose two)
A. The switch name must match the workgroup name of the local network.
B. The switch must be configured with an IP address and default gateway.
C. The remote workstations must have access to the management VLAN of the switch.
D. CDP must be enabled on the switch so that it can be located by other devices on the network.
Ans: B,C
Explanation:
For managing switch remotely an IP address and default gateway to be defined on the Switch. The workstations should have access to Management VLAN. I.e. VLAN 1 of the switch.
Incorrect answers:
A: There is no such requirement
D:CDP will determine directly connected devices. It will not play any role for managing switch remotely.
33. Quest4 Certification.com has allocated the IP add 199.144.27.0 is its network, to provide flexibility for the LAN design, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 has been chosen. Which of the following address can be assigned to LAN on the resulting subnets (Choose three)
A. 199.141.27.33
B. 199.141.27.112
C. 199.141.27.119
D. 199.141.27.126
E. 199.141.27.175
F. 199.141.27.208
Ans: A,C,D
Explanation:
These are valid addresses used for hosts.
Incorrect Answers:
B, F: These are network addresses.
E: This is the broadcast address of network 199.141.27.144. control list.
E: show interface list is not a valid command
F: show ip interface brief is not a valid command
34. A Router with a BRI/T interface will be used for an ISDN Connection what other ISDN device is
required to complete this connection?
A. TE1
B. TE2
C. NT1
D. NT2
Ans: C
Explanation: NT1 is used to connect Service Provider.
Incorrect answers:
A: TE1 is used for connecting ISDN Terminal
B: TE2 is used for connecting non ISDN terminal with TA
D: NT2 Equipment that uses T interface point to Telco outside North America
35. How many usable sub network and usable hosts per subnet result in the network address 201.105.13.0 is sub netted with a mask of /26?
A. 64 network and 4 hosts
B. 4 network and 64 hosts
C. 2 network and 62 hosts
D. 62 network and 2 hosts
Ans: C
Explanation:
On the 4th. octet, /26 will have 2 bits (Subnetwork) and 6 bits (Hosts).
Formula: 2^n-2
Networks: 2^2-2 = 2 networks
Hosts: 2^6-2 = 62 hosts
36. Which of the following if addresses can be assigned to host devices (Choose two)
A. 205.7.8. 32/27
B. 191.168. 10. 2/23
C. 127.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.10
E. 203.123.45. 47/28
F. 10.10.0.0/13
Ans: B,F
Incorrect Answer:
A: This is a network address.
C: That is a loop-back address.
D: That is a Type D (Multicast) address.
E: This is a broadcast address.
37. All WAN links is side the Quest4 Certification.com network use PPP with for authentication security. Which command will display the CHAP authentication process as it occurs between two routers in the network.
A. show CHAP authentication
B. show interface serial 0
C. debug PPP authentication
D. debug CHAP authentication
Ans: C
Explanation: This command displays all PPP events occurred between two Routers. ( LCP and NCP phase)
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, E: Show command won't show the process as it occurs between the 2 routers.
D: That is an invalid command.
40. What does a configuration Register Setting of 0x2105 indicate to the Router?
A. The Boot IOS Code is Located in the NVRAM.
B. Check NVRAM for boot system Commands.
C. Bypass NVRAM Configurations.
D. Boot the IOS Code Located in ROM.
E. Perform a Password Recovery.
F. Bypass The Code In ROM.
Ans: B
Explanation:
It is stated in the book ICND by Steve McQuerry page 127 that if the configuration register boot field value is from 0x2 to 0xF, the bootstrap code parses any configuration in NVRAM for boot system commands.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Statement is wrong because IOS code is located in flash not NVRAM (startup-configuration)
C: Register setting of 0x2105 where 5 is the boot field. Boot field value of 0x2 to 0xF will look for startup-configuration in the NVRAM and won't be bypass.
D: Statement is wrong because IOS code is located in flash not ROM (RxBoot).
E: This register is not for password recovery.
F: This statement is wrong.
45. Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
A. Transport layer divides a data stream into segments & adds reliability & flow control information
B. Data link layer adds physical source & destination address & an FCS to the segment
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulate a frame with source & destination host address & protocol related control information
D. Packets are created when the network layers adds layers 3 address & control information to a segment
E. The presentation layer translated bits into bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link
Ans: A,D
Explanation:
A: It is the function of Transport layer. TCP and UDP operates in this layer
D: It is the function of the network layer.
Incorrect answers:
B: It will use frames instead of segments.
C: The network layer can not encapsulate frame. It adds Layer 3 address to segment received from transport layer.
E: It is not the function of Presentation layer. It is function of Physical layer.
48. The command frame – relay map ip 10.121.16.8.102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statement is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router part used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. Command is required for all frame relay configuration.
E. The broadcast option allows packet, such as RIP update, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Ans: E
Incorrect Answers:
A: The mentioned command is executed at the interface configuration mode.
B: The ip address is the adjacent router's address not the local router.
C: 102 is the local significant DLCI not remote DLCI.
D: Command is not required for all frame relay configuration. You can use the frame interface-dlci command using sub-interface (point-to-point).
50. Which of the following contribute to congestion on an Ethernet network. (Choose two)
A. Use of full duplex mode.
B. Creation of new collision domain.
C. Creation of new broadcast domain.
D. Addition of hub to the network.
E. Use of switches in the network.
F. Amount of ARP or IPX SAP traffic.
Ans: D,F
Explanation:
D: Hub works on Half duplex mode. If more devices connect to a hub and sending simultaneously collision will occur .It contributes to congestion.
F: ARP also creates congestion in the network
Incorrect answers:
A: Full Duplex will not generate congestion in the network.
B: Creation of new collision domain means connecting a switch instead of Hub will not contribute congestion. Switch isolates collision domain.
C: Creation of VLAN’s in a switch isolate broadcast domain. Each Vlan is separate broadcast domain. It will not generate congestion in network.
51. Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)
A. Provide common view of entire topology
B. Exchange routing tables with neighbors.
C. Calculates shortest path.
D. Utilizes event triggered updates.
E. Utilizes frequent periodic updates.
Ans: A,C,D
Explanation: These are unique features of Link-State protocols.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Link-state routing protocol (OSPF) does not exchange routing tables but instead exchanges routing updates (changes).
E: This statement is correct but not a unique feature of Link-state routing protocol.
52. Which Frame Relay feature is responsible for transmitting keepalives to ensure that the PVC does not shut down because of inactivity?
A. DLCI
B. BECN
C. FECN
D. LMI
E. CIR
F. DE
Ans: D
Explanation:
LMI is the protocol used between a DCE and DTE to manage the connection.Signalling messages for
SVCs,PVC Status messages, and keepalives are all LMI Messages
Reference: Wendell Odom. CISCO CCNA Certification Guide ( 2000 Press) Page 531.
Incorrect Answers:
A: DLCI is a Frame Relay address and is used in Frame Relay headers to identify the virtual circuit.
B: The BECN is the bit in the Frame Relay header that signals to anyone receiving the frame that congestion is occurring in backward direction of the frame. Switches and DTEs can react by slowing the rate by which data is sent in that direction.
C: The FECN is same as B, that congestion is occurring in the same direction as the frame.
E: The CIR is the rate at which the DTE can send data for an individual virtual circuit,for which the provider commits to deliver that amount of data
F: The DE is the bit in the Frame Relay header that signals to a switch to,if frames must be discarded,please choose this frame to discard instead of another frame without the DE bit set.
53. Which of the following options lists the steps in PPP session establishment in the correct order?
A. Optional authentication phase, link establishment phase, network layer protocol phase.
B. Network layer protocol phase, link establishment phase, optional authentication phase.
C. Network layer protocol phase, optional authentication phase, link establishment phase.
D. Link establishment phase, network layer protocol phase, optional authentication phase.
E. Link establishment phase, optional authentication phase, network layer protocol phase.
F. Optional authentication phase, network layer protocol phase, link establishment phase.
Ans: E
Explanation:
Link establishment is a function in Link Control Protocol (LCP).It is first phase in PPP. In LCP only authentication phase is defined. It is optional phase. Authentication can be done by PAP or CHAP method to authenticate the device on the other end of the link.Network layer protocol is last phase in PPP. PPP is designed to allow the simultaneous use of multiple Network layer protocols. They are IPCP and IPXCP
Incorrect Answers:
A: Authentication phase is after Link establishment phase. Order is reversed here
B: Network Layer protocol is last phase in PPP instead of first phase
C: Order is wrong in this answer also
D: Network layer mentioned as Second phase instead of 3 rd phase, and Authentication mentioned as 3 rd phase instead of 2 nd phase.
E: Order of all three are not in proper order.
56. What feature of a networks switch allows an administrative to create separate broadcast domains?
A. Store-and-forward switching
B. Microsegmentation
C. Transparent bridging
D. Fragment-free switching
E. Virtual LANs
F. Cut-through switching
Answer: E
Explanation: Creation of VLAN in a switch provide separate Broadcast domain . If VLAN is not there all ports as members of one Broadcast domain.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This is one of the Switching method in a switch. It will not play any role for creating separate broadcast domains
B: Not related to the question
C: Transparent bridging is called Transparent because the endpoints devices do not need to know that the bridges exists. It will not play any role for creating separate broadcast domain
57. An administrator has decided to use the private address 172.20.0.0 for the internal network. If the maximum number of hosts allowed on a subnet is 62, which of the following is true regarding the addressing scheme?
A. 172.20.62.255 is a host address.
B. Ten bits were borrowed for subnets.
C. 255.255.255.252 is the subnet mask.
D. 172.20.255.64 is a subnet address.
E. Seven host bits must be used to meet the addressing scheme requirement.
Ans: B
Explanation:
The given address is Class B address. Default mask prefix is 16. In the remaining 16 bits of the IP address 6 bits are sufficient for achieve 62 hosts. So Remaining 10 bits are used for subnetting.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is a broadcast address
C: This subnet mask allow only 2 hosts. Because only 2 bits are remaining for host.
D: The correct subnet address is 172.20.255.192 instead of 172.20.255.64.
E: If one uses 7 host bits, we can achieve 124 hosts. It is more than the requirement. It is wasting one extra bit for host.
58. A small enterprise, Quest4 Certification.com Publishing, has a class C network license. Quest4 Certification.com requires 5 usable subnets, each capable of accommodating at least 18 hosts.
What is the appropriate subnet mask?
A. Yes
b. No
Ans: A
Answer - 255.255.255.224
Explanation:
Default subnet mask for class C network is 255.255.255.0. If one has to create 5 subnets , then 3 bits are required . With 3 bits we can create 6 subnets. Remaining 5 bits are used for Hosts. One can create 30 hosts using 5 bits in host field. This matches with requirement.
59. What is a global command?
A. A command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment status.
B. A command that can be entered in any configuration mode.
C. A command that is universal in application and supports all protocols.
D. A command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS version.
E. A command that is set once and affects the entire router.
Ans: A
Explanation:
Global command is available an all releases of IOS .In every router one has to define minimum hostname . This will be available in Global config mode in all versions of images.
Incorrect Answers
B: It can be entered from usermode or exit from interface mode mainly
C: It is not mandatory to support all protocols
D: Not clear about foreign and Domestic IOS version
E: An interface config may overwrite global config parameter
60. You work as network administrator for the Quest4 Certification.com Inc. A static route to a Quest4 Certification branch office LAN needs to be configured on the Quest4 Certification1 router. The address of the branch office LAN is 172.16.16.0/24. The point-to-point link between the corporate router and the branch office is configured with the first two usable IP addresses on the 172.16.14.0/24 network, with the corporate router serial interface receiving the first address, and the branch office serial interface receiving the second. In the box below, enter the command to configure the corporate router with this static route. No optional parameters are required.
Quest4 Certification1(config)# __________
A. Yes
B. No
Ans: A
Answer - ip route 172.16.16.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.14.2
Explanation:
The syntax for ip route is ip route prefix mask { next –hop-router/ output-interface).
In Our example prefix is 172.16.16.0. Mask is 24 bits, ie 255.255.255.0. Branch office serial interface address is second usable address in the network 172.16.14.0. That is 172.16.14.2.
62. You have configured a new Frame Relay link on a router that is using IGRP.
Which command would you use to set the IGRP metric for the speed of this link?
A. Quest4 CertificationRouter(config)# IGRP metric 256K
B. Quest4 CertificationRouter(config)# bandwidth 256
C. Quest4 CertificationRouter(config-if)# metric 256K
D. Quest4 CertificationRouter(config-if)# bandwidth 256
Ans: D
Explanation:
Bandwidth and delay are used for calculating IGRP metric. They are interface sub commands. (config-if)# mode is interface sub command. This answer is matching with requirement
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is Global configuration mode. There is no such command
B: It is Global configuration mode
C: There is no such command
63. A network host is configured as follows:
Host IP address: 192.168.16.183 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 192.168.16.190
Which of the following statements describe the network to which this host is attached? (Choose three)
A. The default gateway is configured on a different subnet form this host.
B. The host is a member of the fifth usable subnet of the 192.168.16.0 network.
C. The subnetwork address for this host is 192.168.16.160/28.
D. The address of the next higher subnet is 192.168.16.192.
E. The address of the router interface that is attached to this subnetwork is 192.168.16.190.
Ans: B,D,E
Explanation:
B: According to subnet mask , 5 bits are used for hosts. So each subnet contains 30 hosts .The fifth usable subnet range is 192.168.16.160 to 192.168.16.191. Here first address is network and later address is broad cast. Our host .183 is member of this subnetwork.
D: The next subnet address after fifth usable subnet is 192.168.16.192
E: 192.168.16.190 is the router interface in the fifth usable subnet
Incorrect Answers:
A: Default gateway is same subnet as Host
C: Subnet mask is different as compared to mask defined in the question
F: There are 30 usable hosts in each subnetwork.
64. Which statement describes the rule of split horizon?
A. Only routers can split boundaries (horizons) between concentric networks.
B. All distance vector protocols require fall back routers that may cause momentary loops as the topology changes.
C. Networks can only remain fully converged if all information about routers is sent out all active interfaces.
D. Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update come.
E. Each AS must keep routing tables converged to prevent dead routes from being advertised across the AS boundary.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Split horizon includes two related concepts that affect what routes are included in a routing update:
An update does not include the subnet of the interface out which the update is sent
All routes with outgoing interface of interface x are not included in updates sent out that same interface x.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There is no such requirement
B: Distance vector protocols updates routing table at regular intervals instead of Topology changes
C: This is not a feature of split horizon
E: This is not a related feature for split horizon
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